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Course Work Book/Study Volume I – IV 2012
For Adult Education Completion Only
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About Marque Learning Center: Marque Learning Center was established in 2003 because we saw the need in our city to provide a legitimate education to adults and teens who by difficult situations were unable to finish High School. At Marque Learning Center we believe that everyone should have the opportunity to finish High School no matter what their circumstances are. Our program is designed so that it may be completed at the students own time and on their own pace. We want our students to be as comfortable as they need to be with no more added stress to their busy schedules. We strive to make sure that we empower our students with the tools necessary to access the many opportunities that await them upon graduation. We consider ourselves a stepping stone to a brighter and more successful future. Marque would like to thank you, the student, for choosing us. It is an honor to be a part of your future success. We wish you the best and remember, friends don’t let friends get a GED, friends refer friends to Marque Learning Center! Marque is here for you so please feel free to call a representative if you have any questions or need assitance. Thank you, Marque Learning Center
The Research paper on Running Head Learning Center For Primary Classroom part 1
Running head: LEARNING CENTER FOR PRIMARY CLASSROOM Learning Center for Primary Classroom April 23, 2009 Learning Center for Primary Classroom Introduction Educators often face challenges on how to provide effective instruction for children with diverse needs in special and general education settings. Although learning centers are relatively seldom used nowadays due to various limitations (for ...
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ATTENTION STUDENT: • Your work does not have a due date. The sooner you turn it in the sooner you will receive your High School Diploma. Turn in completed work only. • If you do not pass the test the first time you may retake it as many times as needed. Please Note: You will NOT be charged again to retake it. When dropping off your work you do not need to have an appointment, just come during the office hours below. • If you are paying in payments then your final payment is due one month after your registration date. If you cannot pay your final payment on time, please feel free to call us so we can make other arrangements. If you drop off your work before 1 month you must pay your final payment also. • Before you drop off your work make sure the below items are fully completed. 6 Scantrons with your Name and Scantron # 4 Essays 1 Short Story 1 Bible Summary
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The Term Paper on Virtual Office Work Employees Workers
The Office of Tomorrow In an increasing number of companies, traditional office space is giving way to community areas and empty chairs as employees work from home, from their cars or from virtually anywhere. Advanced technologies and progressive HR strategies make these alternative offices possible. Imagine it's 2 o'clock on a Wednesday afternoon. Inside the dining room of many nationwide ...
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Introduction
Thank you for choosing Marque Learning Center. We are delighted to have you as a student. Enclosed you will find the necessary courses to complete our education program and receive your High School Diploma. Who we are and what we do? Marque Learning Center is a Home School Organization registered with the State of Texas. Our main corporate office is located on 11811 East Frwy Ste 300 Houston, TX 77029, we are accredited by Private Schools Accreditation Alliance, and authorized to operate anywhere within the State of Texas. We are dedicated to seeing our students succeed and provide a better future not only for themselves but also for their family. In addition, we offer a low cost way for you to complete the necessary courses in order to graduate and receive your high school diploma. How it works? First, we determine how much of High School you actually completed. Second, we give you our course workbook. Third, once completed you then return the book for grading. Finally, upon passing your course workbook you will receive your High School Diploma. Testing? There is absolutely NO testing involved. Once you have completed and passed this course workbook you will receive your high school diploma.
NO GED testing. NO TAAS, STARS, or TAKS testing. Disclaimer Please note that Home schooling is perfectly legal in the state of Texas, 100% of all traditional colleges will accept your Diploma for enrollment, 98% of all employers and technical schools will accept your diploma. 2% will require you graduate from a traditional High School. Also, special licensing such as day care licensing, realtor, plumber, electrician etc. may be obtained by the State with your diploma. College/Military*/Nursing/Technical/Mechanical/Realty School and many more….. Upon completion of our program you will be able to attend College or any of the types of schools listed above. For Community Colleges and Universities you will be required (by the colleges) to take an entrance test before being accepted (this applies to regular High School students also) which the college will completely administer and grade. It is Highly recommended you purchase the study material needed for the test before you take it. *To enroll in the military or work at certain public schools you must first have 15 college credits. Fees Our Program cost is $250. Please call for any specials we may have. We accept cash, money orders, Master Card & Visa or any bank debit card. Please make money orders payable to: Marque Learning Center
The Business plan on Succeeding in Graduate School Online: Tips from Successful Students.
The purpose of this project was to provide a resource for distance education graduate students or their instructors to help students excel in their online programs. The researchers interviewed 15 people, consisting of current students and recent graduates. Participants provided information about the nature of online courses, why these courses were advantageous, and how they were planning to use ...
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Please review the below criteria before continuing; this is to ensure that you are eligible to take this course.
Requirements for student enrollment: 1. Students must be 17 yrs or older before enrollment.
*Students 16 yrs old may enroll only with special circumstances. See school representative for details.
2. Student must have at least one of the following: a valid Social Security Card, Work Permit, Drivers License, Identification Card, or Alien Registration Card. 3. Student must be able to Read, Write, & Speak English. If you do not meet the above requirements you are not eligible to take this Course.
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Electives: (ONLY 4 COURSES ARE REQUIRED)
Courses:
List on page 3 the below courses that you either took in High School or have real life experience in. Example: Spanish, Cooking, Cleaning, Working with Numbers Foreign Language: Spanish French Vietnamese Chinese
German Japanese
Italian Other: list on page 3
Work Study: List Name of Employer on page 3 Home Economics: Cooking, Cleaning, Babysitting Fine Arts: Drawing, Painting Music: Guitar, Piano, Keyboard, Trumpet, Saxophone, Accordion, etc. Accounting: Balancing a check book, Check Register, Working with numbers Administrative: Typing, Data Entry, Answering Phones, Placing orders, Faxing Computer Programs: Windows 95/98/2000, ME or XP, Microsoft Word, Excel, Power Point, Access, Front Page, Internet, other etc. Mechanics: Car repair, Truck repair, A/C repair, other Physical Education / Sports: Body Building, Swimming, Exercising, Football, Soccer, Baseball, Volleyball, Basketball, Tennis, Golf, Dancing.
The Essay on Middle East 4
Middle East The political systems of Middle Eastern countries display considerable variety. For much of the post-World War II period, the greatest distinction was between the conservative, capitalist, pro-Western monarchies and the reformist, socialist, and neutralist or pro-Eastern republics, many of which were military regimes. Pan-Arabism, which seeks to reunite the Arabs, was a dominant ...
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ENGLISH COURSES
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Language Arts & Writing
Basic English Passage I
Scantron #101
DIRECTIONS: Read all 5 passages and answer 50 questions (ten questions on each passage).
Each set of ten questions appears directly after the relevant passage. You should select the answer choice that best answers the question. The following passage is adapted from the short story “A Wagner Matinee” by Willa Cather.
On the morning after her arrival, Aunt Georgiana was still exhausted from her lengthy train trip. She seemed not to realize that she was in the city where she had spent her youth, the place she had longed for hungrily half a lifetime ago. I had planned a little pleasure for her that afternoon, to repay her for some of the glorious moments she had given me when we used to milk together in the straw-thatched cowshed, and she would tell me of the splendid performances she had seen in Paris in her youth. At two o’clock the Symphony Orchestra was to give a Wagner program, and I intended to take my aunt; though as I talked with her, I grew doubtful about her enjoyment of it. Indeed, for her sake, I hoped that her taste for such things was quite dead, and that the long struggle was mercifully ended at last. I suggested our visiting the Conservatory and the Common before lunch, but she seemed altogether too timid to venture out. She questioned me absently about various changes in the city, but she was chiefly concerned that she had forgotten to leave instructions about feeding half- Skimmed milk to a certain weakling calf, “old Maggie’s calf, you know, Clark,” she explained, evidently having forgotten how long I had been away. From the time we entered the concert hall, however, she was slightly less passive, and for the first time seemed to recognize her surroundings. I had felt some apprehension that she might become aware of her absurd attire, or might experience some painful embarrassment at stepping suddenly into the world to which she had been lost for a quarter of a century. But, again, I found how superficially I had judged her. She sat looking about her with eyes as impersonal, almost as stony, as those with which the granite King Ramses in a museum watches the ebb and flow of people about his pedestal-separated from them by the lonely stretch of centuries. When the musicians came out and took their places, she gave a little stir of anticipation and looked with quickening interest down over the rail at that unchanging grouping, perhaps the first familiar thing that had greeted her eye since she had left old Maggie and her weakling calf. I could feel how all those details sank into her soul, for I had not forgotten how they had sunk into mine when I came fresh from plowing between green aisles of corn, where one might walk from daybreak to dusk without perceiving a shadow of change. The clean profiles of the musicians, the gloss of their linen, the dull black of their coats, the beloved shapes of the instruments, the patches of yellow light thrown by the green-shaded lamps on the smooth, varnished bellies of the cellos and the bass viols in the rear, the restless, wind-tossed forest of fiddle necks and bows-I recalled how, in the first orchestra I ever heard, those long bow strokes seemed to draw the heart out of me, as a magician’s stick reels out yards of paper ribbon from a hat. When the horns trumpeted the first strain from the Tannhauser overture, my Aunt Georgiana clutched my sleeve, and at that moment I realized that for her this broke a thirty-year silence.
The Essay on The Roles Of Food In Paradise Of The Blind
Set in the 1980s, Duong Thu Huong’s ‘Paradise of the Blind’ narrates the life of a 20 years old Vietnamese lady, Hang, as she makes a long train ride to Moscow where she reflects on her childhood in Vietnam during the time of Communist reign. Throughout the novel, Huong conveys the story in the perspective of Hang using different motifs. Unquestionably, one such motif is the use ...
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Basic English Passage 1 (continued…)
Scantron #101
When the overture finished, my aunt released my coat sleeve but said nothing, while staring dully at the orchestra. Aunt Georgiana had been a good pianist in her day, and her musical education had been broader than that of most music teachers twentyfive years ago. My aunt had often spoken of Mozart’s operas and Meyerbeer’s, and I could remember hearing her sing certain melodies of Verdi’s. I watched her closely throughout the prelude to Tristan and Isolde, trying vainly to conjecture what that seething turmoil of strings and winds might mean to her, but she sat mutely staring at the violin bows that drove diagonally downward, like the pelting streaks of rain in a summer shower. I wondered if this music had any message for her, and I was in a fever of curiosity, but Aunt Georgiana sat silent. She preserved this utter immobility throughout The Flying Dutchman, though her fingers worked mechanically upon her black dress, as though, of themselves, they were recalling the piano score they had once played. Her poor old hands had been stretched and twisted into mere tentacles to hold and lift and knead with; the palms unduly swollen, the fingers bent and knotted-on one of them a thin, worn band that had once been a wedding ring. As I pressed and gently quieted one of those groping hands, I remembered with quivering eyelids their comfort for me in other days. Soon after the tenor began the “Prize Song,” I heard a quick drawn breath and turned to my aunt. Her eyes were closed, but the tears were glistening on her cheeks, and I think, in a moment more, they were in my eyes as well. It never really died, then-the soul that can suffer so excruciatingly and so interminably; it withers to the outward eye only, like that strange moss which can lie on a dusty shelf half a century and yet, if placed in water, grow green again.
Negative Effects Of Junk Food Health Essay
Though your children may ask for junk food because they like the taste or because their friends are eating it, you undoubtedly already know that junk food can have negative effects on them. Junk food is typically is low in nutrients and high in calories from added sugars, starches or fats. Processed and junk food lovers beware! There are many negative repercussions to persistent junk food eating ...
1. The passage makes it clear that Aunt Georgiana: a. Played violin in an orchestra. b. Not seen Clark for some time. c. Often listens to music. d. Grew up on a dairy farm. e. Was the best chef.
2. It is reasonable to conclude from information provided in the passage that Clark’s relationship with his aunt developed from: a. Childhood trips to the symphony. b. Recent family gatherings. c. Childhood memories on a farm. d. Summer vacation experiences. e. Winter vacation memories.
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Basic English Passage 1 (continued…)
Scantron #101
3. In the second paragraph, lines 9-11, Clark expresses his hope that Aunt Georgiana’s interest in music has subsided. Which of the following quotations from the passage suggests that his hope was misguided? a. “She was slightly less passive, and for the first time seemed to recognize her surroundings.” b. “She gave a little stir of anticipation and looked with quickening interest down over the rail” c. “When the horns trumpeted the first strain from the Tannhauser overture, my Aunt Georgiana clutched my sleeve.” d. “I heard a quick drawn breath … Her eyes were closed, but tears were glistening on her cheeks.” e. “I saw that her eyes were open, when we heard the trumpet.” 4. Lines 18-21 indicate that Clark’s feelings about his aunt are best described as: a. Tentative. b. Disapproving. c. Agonizing. d. Compassionate. e. Sorrow. 5. Details of the passage suggest that Clark takes his aunt to the symphony because he has a sense of: a. Guilt. b. Responsibility. c. Gratitude. d. Indebtedness. e. Greed. 6. The idea that music is an emotional experience for the characters in this story is best exemplified by which of the following quotations from the passage? a. b. c. d. e. “Those long bow strokes seemed to draw the heart out of me.” “I could feel how all those details sank into her soul.” “It never really died, then-the soul that can suffer so excruciatingly.” “I wondered if this music had any message for her.” “I could see how she was able to do what she does.”
7. The passage indicates that Aunt Georgiana once played: a. The Tan Hauser overture. b. Tristan and Isolde. c. The Flying Dutchman. d. The “Prize Song.” e. The Trophy.
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Basic English Passage 1 (continued…)
8. According to the passage, Aunt Georgiana’s hands are swollen from: a. b. c. d. e. A broken finger. Manual labor. A recent illness. Playing the piano. A current death.
Scantron #101
9. Which of the following best describes Aunt Georgiana’s nature as it is presented in the passage? a. Reserved. b. Disinterested. c. Considerate. d. Nurturing. e. Anger. 10. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that the moss mentioned in the last paragraph is symbolic of Aunt Georgiana’s: a. Life. b. Innocence. c. Spirit. d. Wisdom. e. Courage.
Basic English Passage II
The following passage is adapted from the short story “Health and Fitness” In 1993, the Center for Science in the Public Interest CSPI attracted extensive media attention when it reported that Chinese restaurant food is unhealthy. A meal of Kung Pao chicken, the center claimed, is comparable to “four McDonald’s quarter pounder. In the months that followed this news, the CSPI focused on several other types of food-including Italian food, Mexican food, and movie-theater popcorn-that, according to the center’s findings, contained unhealthy levels of salt and fat. The center declared that fettuccine Alfredo is “a heart attack on a plate,” that eating Chile Rellenos is like eating a whole stick of butter,” and that a medium-sized container of movie-theater popcorn with butter-flavored topping contains “more fat than a bacon and eggs breakfast, a Big-Mac-with-fries lunch, and a steak dinner with all the trimmings combined.” In response to this ever-growing list of dangerous foods, Mike Royko, a columnist for the Chicago Tribune, undoubtedly expressed the frustrations of many Americans when he wrote, “I can save the Center for Science in the Public Interest a lot of bother and expense. All it takes is a simple announcement: If something tastes good, it is probably bad. If something tastes really dull, it is probably good.” In a humorous tone, Royko asked, “Who knows where the food nags will strike next? A deli.” Ironically, delis were one of the CSPI’s subsequent targets: It proclaimed that an egg-salad sandwich “makes a Dairy Queen banana split look like a diet food.”
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Basic English Passage II (continued…)
Scantron #101
The CSPI’s campaign against unhealthy food and the reaction to it illustrate the uneasy relationship that often exists between health experts and the American public. Health officials with the help of the news media and advertisers-produce a constant stream of information about the health effects of various foods, beverages, chemicals, drugs, lifestyles, and activities. These reports ceaselessly implore the public to adhere to dietary and fitness guidelines that are continually being updated, revised, and amended. Because these recommendations are in constant flux-and often contradict one another-frustration such as that expressed by Royko is commonplace. Some people adopt the attitude that because risks are ubiquitous and health problems are unavoidable, it is futile to attempt to alter one’s behavior to avoid the inevitable. Daniel Minturn, a shipping clerk interviewed by Richard Woodbury in Time magazine, succinctly summed up this philosophy as he prepared to eat a cheeseburger: “Everywhere you turn, it’s a warning for this and a warning for that. So what’s wrong with just now and then going out and enjoying what you want?” In fact, health experts who challenge the CSPI’s claims suggest that Minturn’s attitude is the correct one. Elizabeth M. Whelan, the president of the American Council on Science and Health, argues, CSPl’s diet advice is “lite” on science and “reduced” in common sense. It overlooks the fact that what is important is one’s overall diet, another occasional consumption of any specific food. The key to healthy eating is a balanced, varied, moderate diet-and there is room in that overall scheme for fettuccini and popcorn. Whelan and others accuse the CSPI of oversimplifying nutritional science. These critics contend that the restaurant foods cited by the CSPI are safe in moderate amounts, and that the CSPI ignores the fact that the degree of risk posed by fat and salt intake varies among individuals. For example, Jacob Sullum writes in National Review, “While too much salt aggravates certain Kinds of hypertension there is no medical reason for people in general to avoid it “Similarly he argues that although “a high-fat diet may increase the risk of heart disease in some people, That does not mean that fettuccine Alfredo, Kung Pao chicken, and Chile Rellenos are poison.”
Not only do experts debate the dangers posed by fat levels in particular foods, they also disagree about the risks and benefits of different types of fat. The food guide pyramid developed and issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) in 1992 recommends using all fats and oils “sparingly.” However, according to Michael Mason, a staff writer for Health magazine, this advice is misguided because it fails to differentiate between kinds of fat. While saturated fat has been linked to heart disease, Mason notes, monounsaturated fat may actually benefit the cardiovascular system. Mason argues that by lumping all fats and oils together, the USDA calls for cutting olive oil, which is a source of monounsaturated fat. Simultaneously, according to Mason, while the pyramid advises cutting fats and oils, it allows for two to three servings per day of red meat, which is high in saturated fat. To rectify these inconsistencies, Mason endorses an alternative pyramid that was developed in 1994 by the Harvard School of Public Health, Old ways Prevention & Ex- change Trust, and the World Health Organization. Based on the traditional Mediterranean diet, the new pyramid recommends eating red meat only a few times a month and calls for daily use of olive oil. Along with contradictory information on nutrition, the public also receives mixed signals on exercise. For example, during the 1970s and 1980s, experts recommended that Americans engage in vigorous exercise for a minimum of thirty minutes a day, five days a week) In 1993, however, new guidelines were released jointly by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM).
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Basic English Passage II (continued…)
Scantron #101
The CDC and the ACSM called for moderate exercise and said that the recommended daily amount of activity could be “accumulated in short bouts” rather than during one workout, as was previously recommended. Then, in 1995, a study authored by IMin Lee, an assistant professor of medicine at the Harvard School of Public Health, concluded that vigorous exercise-but not moderate exercise-was associated with greater longevity, suggesting that only vigorous exercise could help people live longer. Reflecting the public’s confusion, an Associated Press article reporting on Lee’s study began, “Run! No, walk. No, run!” The uncertainty caused by such contradictory information can lead some people to become discouraged and to adopt a careless attitude about their personal health and fitness. However, amid the cacophony of competing recommendations, a few generalizations can safely be made. Most experts agree that some exercise is better than no exercise, and most agree that the best diet is a varied one low in saturated fat. In Health and Fitness: Opposing Viewpoints authors examine diet, exercise, and other topics in the following chapters: What Behaviors Pose the Greatest Health Risks and Benefits? Are Exercise and Weight-Loss Treatments Beneficial? Are Alternative Therapies Viable? Is the Health Care Industry Effective? Throughout these chapters, issues that affect the health and fitness of all Americans are discussed and debated.
11.) In the 1970’s and 1980’s what did experts recommend that Americans engage in to better their health? a. Swimming class b. Jumping Jacks. c. Vigorous Exercise for 30 mins. d. Running. e. None 12.) Which type of food was reported unhealthy in 1993 by the Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI?) a. Chinese Food. b. Mexican Food. c. Greek Food d. Russian Food. e. None 13.) In the passage what did Mike Royko write to express his frustrations of many Americans? a. “I can save the Center for Science in the Public Interest a lot of bother and expense.” b. “All I hear from CSPI is false promises.” c. “The CSPI is not positive about their research on health.” d. “I can certainly say that the CSPI are correct about everything they research.” e. “I wish not to comment on the matter.”
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Basic English Passage II (continued…)
Scantron #101
14.) Who developed the alternative pyramid that Michael Mason endorsed in 1994? a. Benjamin Franklin b. Harvard School of Public Health c. U.S. Centers for Disease Control d. U.S. Department of Agriculture e. None of the above 15.) Who is the president of the American Council on Science and Health? a. Anne Bradstreet b. Walt Whitman c. Elizabeth M. Whelan d. Richard Woodbury e. None of the above 16.) According to the CSPI Eating an Egg sandwich at a deli makes dairy queen look like what? a. Like finger food. b. Like Diet food. c. Like heavenly goodness. d. Like Acid. e. Like baby food. 17.) In the article what is IMin Lee’s Profession? a. Assistant Dentist b. None. c. Optometrist d. Assistant Professor of Medicine. e. Gynecologist. 18.) In the passage what was Daniel Minturn say as he prepared to eat a cheese burger in his interview with Richard Woodbury? a. “Everywhere you turn, it’s a warning for this and a warning for that. So what’s wrong with just now and then going out and enjoying what you want?” b. “I love food and I am not going to stop eating it because someone says it’s unhealthy and it will shorten my life.” c. “I wish there were more people in this world like the CSPI it would be a better one.” e. All of the above.
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Basic English Passage II (continued…)
Scantron #101
19.) What was the name of the columnist that wrote for the Chicago Tribune? a. John Michaels b. Billy Idol c. Mike Royko d. Rick Snider e. None of the above 20.) What was the name of the shipping clerk interviewed by Richard Woodbury in Tim? a. Richard Blalock b. Paul Michaels c. Emily Charis d. Daniel Minturn e. None of the above
Basic English Passage III
The following passage is adapted from the short story “The Holocaust”
When you think of the holocaust, what do you think about? Is it the millions of Jews lives that were taken? Or is it a great, but wicked speaker named Adolph Hitler? Adolph Hitler, Auschwitz, and American involvement are some key roles in the holocaust. Adolph Hitler is probably one of the worst people ever to live. When people talk of evil deeds he is at the top of the list. He was a man of words, and could use them to his advantage. He had an ability to talk and make the Germans believe that the Jews were the reason for the problems in their country; so he gave them the idea to move them out. Then under his command, they forced the Jews in to death camps. After Adolph Hitler convinced the Germans that the Jews were the center of all problems, he started to make camps to place all the Jews. These camps weren’t nice places to be. They were all used to kill millions of Jews. Auschwitz was the most feared of all. Over 2 million Jews were killed there in ways that aren’t humane, such as shooting them, or gassing them in a chamber, or even burning them alive. This camp even bought little farms and houses for places to kill. They had the ever so famous Little Red house and the Little White house. These were places that they took Jews to kill them. How does America get involved in this? They started to ban Jews in America. Nazism started up here in the land of the free. This made it harder for them to come to America and get out of harm’s way in Germany. They were leaving one country to come to another that feared the Jews taking jobs away, and believed they had to take action as did the Germans. Organizations tried to help bring people in to the country, and the government was making it almost imposable to get in. I hope this gives you a little bit more of a prospective on the holocaust. This gives you more to the story than what everyone thinks normally. Adolph Hitler, Auschwitz, and Americas involvements are all big factors in the holocaust. The Germans wanted them out, and the Americans didn’t want them in their country either. How sad is that when America is supposed to be the “Land of the Free?”
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Basic English Passage III (continued…)
Scantron #101
21.) Which concentration camp was most feared during the reign of Adolph Hitler? a. Bergen-Belsen b. Flossenburg c. Auschwitz d. Gross-Rosen e. None of the above 22.) What did this concentration camp buy to kill Jews in? a. Dog House b. Little Farms c. School Buses d. Trains e. None of the above 23.) Which country, besides America, contributed to the Holocaust? a. America b. China c. Iraq d. Germany e. None of the above 24.) How many Jews were killed over the years in the Auschwitz prison? a. Over 2 million Jews. b. Under 2 thousand Jews. c. Almost 2 hundred Jews. d. About 2 Jews. e. None of the above 25.) Who was the cause of the Germans problems? a. Americans b. Jews c. Russians d. Christians e. None of the above 26.) Why was America afraid of letting the Jews in the country? a. Jews created more crime b. Jews took jobs away c. Jews created problems with the Muslims d. Jews littered e. None of the above
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Basic English Passage III (continued…)
27.) According to this passage, where did Nazism begin? a. Russia b. China c. Iran d. Canada e. None of the above
Scantron #101
28.) Who is at the top of the list when someone talks about evil deeds? a. Osama Bin laden b. Kim Jong il c. Sudan Hussein d. Adolph Hitler e. None of the Above 29.) What is one of the many inhumane things that the Nazi’s did to the Jews in the concentration camps? a. Bathed them in Urine b. Gassing them in a chamber c. Throwing them off the Grand Canyon d. Shooting them with cannons e. None of the above
30.) How many Jews were killed in the Holocaust? a. 500,000 b. 4 million c. 6 million d. 8 million e. None of the above
Basic English Usage IV
The economic history of the United States has its roots in European settlements in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries. The American colonies progressed from marginally successful colonial economies to a small, independent farming economy, which in 1776 became the United States of America. In 230 years the United States grew to a huge, integrated, industrialized economy that makes up over a quarter of the world economy. The main causes were a large unified market, a supportive political-legal system, vast areas of highly productive farmlands, vast natural resources (especially timber, coal and oil), and an entrepreneurial spirit and commitment to investing in material and human capital. In addition, the U.S. was able to exploit these resources due to a unique set of institutions designed to encourage exploration and extraction. As a result, the U.S.’s GDP per capita converged on that of the U.K., as well as other Houston Corporate Office: 11811 East Frwy #300 Houston, TX 77029 (713) 453-0310 21
Basic English Usage IV (continued…)
Scantron #101
nations that it previously trailed economically. The economy has maintained high wages, attracting immigrants by the millions from all over the world. For many years following the Great Depression of the 1930s, when the danger of recession appeared most serious, government sought to strengthen the economy by spending heavily itself or cutting taxes so that consumers would spend more, and by fostering rapid growth in the money supply, which also encouraged more spending. In the 1970s, economic woes brought on by the costs of the Vietnam conflict, major price increases, particularly for energy, created a strong fear of inflation. As a result, government leaders came to concentrate more on controlling inflation than on combating recession by limiting spending, resisting tax cuts, and reining in growth in the money supply. Ideas about the best tools for stabilizing the economy changed substantially between the 1960s and the 1990s. In the 1960s, government had great faith in fiscal policy—manipulation of government revenues to influence the economy. Since spending and taxes are controlled by the president and the U.S. Congress, these elected officials played a leading role in directing the economy. A period of high inflation, high unemployment, and huge government deficits weakened confidence in fiscal policy as a tool for regulating the overall pace of economic activity. Instead, monetary policy assumed growing prominence. Since the stagflation of the 1970s, the U.S. economy has been characterized by somewhat slower growth. The worst recession in recent decades, in terms of lost output, occurred in the 1973-75 period of oil shocks, when GDP fell by 3.1 percent, followed by the 1981-82 recession, when GDP dropped by 2.9 percent. Since the 1970s the US has sustained trade deficits with other nations. Output fell by 1.3 percent in the 1990-91 downturn, and a tiny 0.3 percent in the 2001 recession. The 2001 downturn lasted just eight months. In recent years, the primary economic concerns have centered on: high household debt ($14 trillion) including $2.5 trillion in consumer debt, high national debt ($9 trillion), high corporate debt ($9 trillion), high mortgage debt (over $10 trillion as of 2005 year-end), high unfunded Medicare liability ($30 trillion), high unfunded Social Security liability ($12 trillion), high external debt (amount owed to foreign lenders), high trade deficits, and a serious deterioration in the United States net international investment position (NIIP) (-24% of GDP).
In 2006, the U.S economy had its lowest saving rate since 1933. These issues have raised concerns among economists and national politicians. The U.S. economy maintains a relatively high GDP per capita, with the caveat that it may be elevated by borrowing, a low to moderate GDP growth rate, and a low unemployment rate, making it attractive to immigrants worldwide. The United States entered 2008 during a housing market correction, a subprime mortgage crisis and a declining dollar value. On December 1, 2008, the NBER declared that the United States entered a recession in December 2007, citing employment and production figures as well as the third quarter decline in GDP.
31.) When did the ideas for the best tools for stabilizing the economy change? a. 1930’s b. 1950’s c. 1960’s – 1990’s d. 1970’s – 2000 e. None of the above Houston Corporate Office: 11811 East Frwy #300 Houston, TX 77029 (713) 453-0310 22
Basic English Usage IV (continued…)
32.) When did America become The United States of America? a. 1770 b. 1776 c. 1810 d. 1792 e. None of the above
Scantron #101
33.) When was the worst recession in recent decades in terms of lost output? a. 1981-82 b. 1973-75 c. 1960-69 d. 1991-92 e. None of the above 34.) “…the primary economic concerns have centered on: high household debt including $2.5 trillion in consumer debt, high national debt, high corporate debt, high mortgage debt, high unfunded Medicare liability, high unfunded Social Security liability, _____________, high trade deficits, and a serious deterioration in the United States net international investment position.” a. High External Debt b. High Military Debt c. High Social Disability Debt d. High Foreign Imports Debt e. None of the above 35.) While the American economy has been maintaining high wages, what has it been attracting? a. Immigrants b. Problems c. Terrorists d. Chinese e. None of the above
36.) “On December 1, 2008, the NBER declared that the United States entered a(n) ______________ in December of 2007, citing employment and production figures as well as the third quarter decline in GDP.” a. Economic downfall b. War c. National Population Decline d. Recession e. None of the above
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Basic English Usage IV (continued…)
37.) In the 1970’s, what caused the economic woes? a. Poverty b. Famine c. Job Losses d. Vietnam conflict e. None of the above
Scantron #101
38.) What did Franklin D. Roosevelt do to help the depression in the early 1900’s? a. Decreased Taxes b. Enforced a curfew c. Decreased Poverty d. Found Oil e. None of the above 39.) Who controlled the spending and taxes of America? a. Terrorists b. God c. The People d. The President & Congress e. None of the above 40.) How long did the 2001 recession last? a. 4 Months b. 6 Months c. 8 Months d. 10 Months e. None of the above
Do you know anyone who needs their High School Diploma? Refer them to Marque Learning Center.
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Basic English Usage V
Luke 15:11-32 (Contemporary English Version)
Two Sons
Scantron #101
Jesus also told them another story: Once a man had two sons. The younger son said to his father, “Give me my share of the property.” So the father divided his property between his two sons. Not long after that, the younger son packed up everything he owned and left for a foreign country, where he wasted all his money in wild living. 14He had spent everything, when a bad famine spread through that whole land. Soon he had nothing to eat. He went to work for a man in that country, and the man sent him out to take care of his pigs. He would have been glad to eat what the pigs were eating, but no one gave him a thing. Finally, he came to his senses and said, “My father’s workers have plenty to eat, and here I am, starving to death! I will go to my father and say to him, `Father, I have sinned against God in heaven and against you. I am no longer good enough to be called your son. Treat me like one of your workers.’ ” The younger son got up and started back to his father. But when he was still a long way off, his father saw him and felt sorry for him. He ran to his son and hugged and kissed him. The son said, “Father, I have sinned against God in heaven and against you. I am no longer good enough to be called your son.” But his father said to the servants, “Hurry and bring the best clothes and put them on him. Give him a ring for his finger and sandals for his feet. Get the best calf and prepare it, so we can eat and celebrate. This son of mine was dead, but has now come back to life. He was lost and has now been found.” And they began to celebrate. The older son had been out in the field. But when he came near the house, he heard the music and dancing. So he called one of the servants over and asked, “What’s going on here?” The servant answered, “Your brother has come home safe and sound, and your father ordered us to kill the best calf.” The older brother got so angry that he would not even go into the house. His father came out and begged him to go in. But he said to his father, “For years I have worked for you like a slave and have always obeyed you. But you have never even given me a little goat, so that I could give a dinner for my friends. This other son of yours wasted your money on prostitutes. And now that he has come home, you ordered the best calf to be killed for a feast.” His father replied, “My son, you are always with me, and everything I have is yours. But we should be glad and celebrate! Your brother was dead, but he is now alive. He was lost and has now been found.”
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Basic English Usage V (continued…)
Reading and Comprehension for the Parable of the Prodigal Son 41. Which son asked for his share of the property? a. Younger Son b. Nicer Son c. Mean Son d. None of the above e. Older Son 42. Which animal did the servants kill for the feast? a. Calf b. Goat c. Pig d. Chicken e. None of the above 43. What job did the Son have when he was away from his Father? a. Butcher b. Carpenter c. Took care of Pigs d. Blacksmith e. None of the above 44. What did the Father do when his son that left him came back? a. Hug & Kiss him b. Whipped him c. Reject Him d. Gave him more money e. None of the above 45. What did the father never give his to the Son that stayed home? a. Wife b. Servant c. Goat d. Money e. None of the above
Scantron #101
46. According to the son that stayed home, what did the other Son waste his money? a. Prostitutes b. Food c. Drugs d. Alcohol e. None of the above Houston Corporate Office: 11811 East Frwy #300 Houston, TX 77029 (713) 453-0310 26
Basic English Usage V (continued…)
47. After the son got his share of the property, where did he go? a. The Market b. Foreign Country c. His Room d. To the fields e. None of the above 48. How did the son travel to places? a. By boat b. Train c. Airline d. Horse e. None of the above 49. What did the Older Son say to the Younger Son? a. Welcome home b. Be Gone c. I wish you dead d. I’m glad you’re back e. None of the above 50. How many servants did the Older Son ask what was going on? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. None of the above Language Arts & Writing
Scantron #101
Sentence Structure: Please rewrite the 2 separate sentences into one sentence by using a comma, and, or, but, because, etc. Example: The left back tire of the truck is flat. The car windshield is cracked. Answer: The left back tire of the truck is flat and the windshield is cracked. Lesson I Choose the word or punctuation that will best combine the sentences on the next page.
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Language Arts & Writing (continued…)
Scantron #101
51. The first compact microwave ovens were sold in 1960. Everybody didn’t use them until the 1980’s. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 52. For centuries people ate with their hands. A change finally occurred in the 1100’s when people used utensils. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 53. My mom went to the grocery store. She forgot her purse a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because
54. My apartment has 2 bedrooms. My apartment has 1 ½ bathrooms. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 55. My daughter is having a birthday party. My daughter is 5 yrs old today. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 56. I would like to go to the movies. My car does not work. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 57. I have a computer. I have a printer. a. comma b. and c. or
d. but
e. because
58. I would either like the blue car. I would like the red car. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 59. I am wearing my jacket today. It is very cold outside. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 60. I am a male. I weigh 185 pounds. a. comma b. and c. or
d. but
e. because
61. Birds fly in the air. Birds have wings. a. comma b. and c. or d. but
e. because
62. I will always remember September 11. It was a very tragic day. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 63. I was young and immature. Now I am older and wise. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 64. I have 3 boys. I have 2 girls. a. comma b. and
c. or
d. but
e. because
65. I would like new furniture. My old furniture is falling apart. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because
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Language Arts & Writing (continued…)
66. The sky is blue. There are no clouds in the sky. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because
Scantron #101
67. At the light you take a left. At the store you take a right. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 68. I wake up every morning. I get ready for work. a. comma b. and c. or d. but
e. because
69. I wanted to go outside and play. Unfortunately it is raining. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because 70. I am either going to college. I am going to a technical institute. a. comma b. and c. or d. but e. because
Language Arts & Writing Capitalization Always Capitalize people, places, things, titles, holidays, months, days of the week, historic events, and documents. Example: Presents and food are always expected for Christmas. I can’t wait for Thanksgiving; it’s in November of every year. Lesson I Determine each word or words where capitalization belong or doesn’t belong, then choose the correct answer or answers. Some sentences may need correction on more than one word. 71. My friends went to a Concert last monday on Labor day and had a good time. a. monday b. Monday c. concert d. Day e. Friends 72. Thomas Jefferson wrote the declaration of independence for our Country and he was the Governor of Virginia. a. Declaration b. country c. virginia d. governor e. Independence 73. If you take interstate 10 and travel West, you will see katy mills , one of the Largest malls in texas. a. Interstate b. west c. Katy Mills d. largest e. Texas 74. The ceiling of the sistine chapel in rome contains a painting 133 feet long and 45 feet wide. a. sistine b. Sistine c. Painting d. Chapel e. Rome 75. I went to College in San fransisco, california. a. fransisco b. college c. California d. Went
e. Fransisco
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Language Arts & Writing (continued…)
76. Jesus christ is the son of god. a. Christ b. Son c. God d. IS e. The
Scantron #101
77. The houston zoo is a wonderful place for Children. a. Zoo b. Wonderful c. Place d. children
e. Houston
78. Neil armstrong was the first astronaut to walk on the Moon. a. First b. moon c. Astronaut d. Moon e. Armstrong 79. George washington’s portrait is on the one dollar Bill. a. Portrait b. washington’s c. bill d. Washington’s 80. The United States of america is located in North america. a. united b. located c. America d. In e. America 81. Daniel and mary went to the store to buy Groceries and will be Back shortly. a. Mary b. Store c. groceries d. back e. Will 82. Moses, Richard, and Sammy are brothers who like Playing baseball. a. sammy b. Richard c. playing d. baseball e. Baseball 83. Hawaii has Some of the Most beautiful beaches on the earth. a. some b. Beautiful c. Earth d. most e. Beaches 84. Johnson Space center is located in Houston, tx. a. space b. Center c. is d. tx e. TX 85. i am a Father of 3 boys and 4 girls. a. Boys b. Girls c. I d. father
e. Dollar
e. A
86. Richard and i have been Co-Workers for about 10 years. a. richard b. co-workers c. Years d. I e. Richard 87. When I graduate I would Like to Go to San Jacinto College. a. Graduate b. like c. go d. College e. college 88. I really enjoy Watching my Children play outside; it reminded Me of when I was a child. a. play b. watching c. Outside d. children e. me 89. I like reading books at the library; it is very relaxing For me. a. reading b. Books c. Library d. for e. me 90. Sammy, Michael, Debbie, Charles, Frances, & yolanda are going to the movies Tonight. a. Michael b. Debbie c. Yolanda d. Movies e. tonight
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Basic English Usage I
Noun- a person, place, thing or idea Verb – A form of action
Scantron #101
Identify the below Nouns and Verbs. There may be more than one.
Example: I enjoy eating at the café on Broadway Street.
91. Life is full of choices, so I must learn to make good ones. a. life b. choices c. none d. learn e. make 92. Trust in the Lord with all of your heart. Do not depend on your own understanding. a. Lord b. heart c. depend d. understanding e. trust 93. Seek his will in all you do and he will direct your paths. a. in b. do c. seek d. his e. direct 94. Don’t be impressed with your own wisdom. Instead, fear the Lord and turn your back on evil. a. impressed b. don’t c. fear d. Lord e. turn 95. A house is built by wisdom and becomes strong through good sense. a. becomes b. is c. house d. built e. and 96. True humility and fear of the Lord lead to riches, honor, and long life. a. fear b. Lord c. lead d. life e. riches 97. The Lord preserves knowledge, but he ruins the plans of the deceitful. a. ruins b. plans c. Lord d. knowledge e. preserves 98. He forgives all my sins and heals all my diseases. He fills my life with good things. a. diseases b. he c. forgives d. fills e. heals 99. The Lord is my strength and my salvation; in him I will trust. a. Lord b. salvation c. strength d. trust e. him 100. Jesus Christ said, “ In this world you will have trouble: but be of good cheer, I have overcome the World.” a. Jesus b. cheer c. trouble d. world e. good
Don’t forget to refer your family and friends!!!
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Writing
Essay Lesson I Topic: Pick your own topic.
Your essay must consist of: Introduction: 1 paragraph Body: 3 paragraphs Conclusion: 1 paragraph Note: 1 paragraph= 4 complete sentences You may write or type your essay. Please use your own separate paper for your own essay. You will mainly be graded on your spelling, sentence structure and the length of your essay. Make sure to be very specific in your story and explain in detail what you are writing about.
Questions:
What is your story about? How do you relate to your essay? Who are the people in your essay? What time does your essay take place? (day, night, summer, or no specific time) Is your essay based on true facts or fiction (not true)? ***You must complete these questions on your own paper***
Write your essay on your own paper. It must be at least 5 paragraphs with 4 sentences in each paragraph.
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Writing
Essay Lesson II Topic: Pick your own topic.
Your essay must consist of: Introduction: 1 paragraph Body: 3 paragraphs Conclusion: 1 paragraph Note: 1 paragraph= 4 complete sentences You may write or type your essay. Please use your own separate paper for your own essay. You will mainly be graded on your spelling, sentence structure and the length of your essay. Make sure to be very specific in your story and explain in detail what you are writing about.
Questions:
What is your story about? How do you relate to your essay? Who are the people in your essay? What time does your essay take place? (day, night, summer, or no specific time) Is your essay based on true facts or fiction (not true)? ***You must complete these questions on your own paper***
Write your essay on your own paper. It must be at least 5 paragraphs with 4 sentences in each paragraph.
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Writing
Essay Lesson III Topic: What is your favorite memory?
Your essay must consist of: Introduction: 1 paragraph Body: 3 paragraphs Conclusion: 1 paragraph Note: 1 paragraph= 4 complete sentences You may write or type your essay. Please use your own separate paper for your own essay. You will mainly be graded on your spelling, sentence structure and the length of your essay. Make sure to be very specific in your story and explain in detail what you are writing about.
Questions:
How do you relate to your essay? Who are the people in your essay? What time does your essay take place? (day, night, summer, or no specific time) Is your essay based on true facts or fiction (not true)? ***You must complete these questions on your own paper***
Write your essay on your own paper. It must be at least 5 paragraphs with 4 sentences in each paragraph.
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Writing
Essay Lesson IV Topic: Pick your own topic
Your essay must consist of: Introduction: 1 paragraph Body: 3 paragraphs Conclusion: 1 paragraph Note: 1 paragraph= 4 complete sentences You may write or type your essay. Please use your own separate paper for your own essay. You will mainly be graded on your spelling, sentence structure and the length of your essay. Make sure to be very specific in your story and explain in detail what you are writing about.
Questions:
What is your story about? How do you relate to your essay? Who are the people in your essay? What time does your essay take place? (day, night, summer, or no specific time) Is your essay based on true facts or fiction (not true)? ***You must complete these questions on your own paper***
Write your essay on your own paper. It must be at least 5 paragraphs with 4 sentences in each paragraph.
Short Story, Lesson I
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Writing
Short Story: Lesson 1 Topic: Past, Present, and Future
Your short story must consist of: Introduction: 1 paragraph Body: 1 paragraph Conclusion: 1 paragraph Note: 1 paragraph= 4 complete sentences You may write or type your short story. Please use your own separate paper for your own short story. You will mainly be graded on your spelling, sentence structure and the length of your short story. Make sure to be very specific in your story and explain in detail what you are writing about.
Questions:
Past: Why did you not finish High School the traditional way? (Example: Dropped out because of low grades, failed TAKS, had to work, etc.) Present: What led you to Marque Learning Center? (Example: Greensheet, friend referral, family, etc.) Future: What do you plan to do once you graduate? (Example: Go to college, get a better job, etc.)
***You must complete these questions on your own paper***
Write your short story on your own paper. It must be at least 3 paragraphs with 4 sentences in each paragraph. Elective
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Bible Teaching (Good Citizenship)
Read all of the below passages from the bible then choose and write a short summary (6 sentences on your own separate paper) about what you have read. You will be graded on your spelling and sentence structure. Proverbs chapter 15 verse 1 A gentle answer turns away wrath (anger); but harsh words stir up anger. Ecclesiastes chapter 7 verse 9 Don’t be quick – tempered, for anger is the friend of fools. James chapter 1 verses 19-20 My dear brothers and sisters, be quick to listen, slow to speak, and slow to get angry. Your anger can never make things right in God’s sight. John chapter 3 verses 16-17 For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in Him will not perish, but have eternal life. God did not send his Son into the world to condemn it, but to save it. John chapter 14 verses 1-3 & 6 Don’t be troubled. You trust God, now trust in me (Jesus Christ).
There are many rooms in my Father’s home (heaven), and I am going to prepare a place for you. If this were not so, I would tell you plainly. When everything is ready, I will come and get you, so that you will always be with me where I am. I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one can come to the Father except through me. Romans chapter 6 verse 23 For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life through Christ Jesus our Lord. Romans chapter 10 verses 9-10 For if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved (saved from eternal death in hell).
For it is by believing in your heart that you are made right with God, and it is by confessing with your mouth that you are saved.
Ephesians chapter 2 verses 4-5 & 8-9 But God is so rich in mercy, and he loved us so very much, that even while we were dead because of our sins, he gave us life when he raised Christ from the dead. (It is only by God’s special favor that you have been saved) God saved you by his special favor when you believed. And you can’t take credit for this; it is a gift from God. Salvation is not a reward for the good things we have done, so none of us can boast about it.
Write your short summary on your own paper.
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Est. 2003
MATH COURSES
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Math Courses
Complex Math
Scantron #201
Calculate from left to right. For problems with parentheses first figure the problems within the parentheses ( ), then calculate the remaining function.
1. 100/20 + 10 – 3 + 8 = a. 16 b. 24 2. 50 * 3 / 50 + 17 / 2 = a. 20 b. 10 3. 80 + 20 / 4 * 8 = a. 200 b. 140 4. 16 * 8 + 10 / 2 = a.153 b. 133 5. 100 * 8 + 20 – 10 = a. 810 b. 800 6. 1234 / 2 * 3 – 20 = a. 1381 b. 8381 7. 186 / 6 * 2 – 30 = a. 23 b. 32 8. 144 / 12 * 3 + 120 – 10 = a. 164 b. 416 9. 18954 / 2 * 3 + 16 – 20 = a. 24287 b. 24872 10. 16 * 3 + 20 / 2 – 16 = a. 144 b. 24
c. 20
d. 18
e. 23
c. 15
d. 5
e. 11.5
c. 120
d. 145
e. 150
c. 135
d. 166
e. 69
c. 198
d. 180
e. 881
c. 1831
d. 1381
e. 1183
c. 132
d. 123
e. 321
c. 614
d. 146
e. 144
c. 72482
d. 28547
e. 28427
c. 18
d. 42
e. 124
11. 28 * 20 + 16 * 15 – 25 + 17 = a. 792 b. 8632 c. 6823 12. 15 * 100 / 3 – 20 + 250 / 10 = a. 123 b. 450 c. 75 13. 6500 / 2 * 6 – 20 + 15 = a. 19495 b. 14995
d. 7832
e. 692
d. 73
e. 505
c. 15945
d. 19595
e. 18595
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
Scantron #201
14. 898 * 6 / 2 – 25 + 200 = a. 9682 b. 2869 15. 98 * 24 / 4 + 510 – 60 = a. 1138 b. 1803 16. 144 * 12 – 25 + 12 = a. 7151 b. 1571 17. 38 * 8 – 45 + 1526 – 89 = a. 1986 b. 1969 18. 2121 * 3 + 500 / 5 – 60 = a. 1312.6 b. 6403 19. 900 * 6 – 60 + 189 = a. 9255 b. 5259 20. 336 / 2 * 60 – 18 + 25 = a. 10080 b. 10800 21. 524 / 4 * 16 – 50 + 600= a. 2646 b. 2466 22. 1250 / 50 – 10 + 600 / 2 = a. 331.5 b. 533.1 23. 687 * 2 – 100 + 80 / 2 = a. 1002 b. 677 24. 798 / 2 * 16 – 50 + 687 = a. 2107 b. 7210 25. 999 + 888 – 262 / 2 * 3 = a. 1494 b. 1945.2 26. (20 * 3) + (600 – 18 * 6) = a. 5203 b. 3552 27. (85 * 6 / 3) – (6 + 80) = a. 481 b. 148
c. 2689
d. 8269
e. 2986
c. 1308
d. 1038
e. 3801
c. 5711
d. 1175
e. 1715
c. 1696
d. 1669
e. 1966
c. 1213.6
d. 2131.6
e. 1123.6
c. 5529
d. 2259
e. 2592
c. 10807
d. 78001
e. 10087
c. 6426
d. 2642
e. 6244
c. 315
d. 307.5
e. 513.5
c. 413
d. 147
e. 1314
c. 1702
d. 7201
e. 7021
c. 2437.5
d. 1944.5
e. 4944.7
c. 223
d. 552
e. 2503
c. 184
d. 84
e. 48
28. (20 * 3 + 8 / 2) + (80 * 6 / 3 + 8) = a. 232 b. 1321 c. 223
d. 322
e. 202
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
Scantron #201
29. (100 * 6 / 2 + 80) – (20 * 5 – 6 + 80) = a. 206 b. 602 c. 200 30. (16 / 8 / 2) * (16 / 8 / 2) = a. 10 b. 1
d. 600
e. 620
c. 100
d. 110
e. 2
31. (1264 / 4 * 8) – (144 * 3 – 60 + 80) = a. 2176 b. 2760 c. 2076 32. (1825 / 5 + 6) + (124 * 3 – 20) = a. 227 b. 337 c. 327 33. (30 * 3 / 2 + 60) + (124 * 3 – 20) = a. 457 b. 513 c. 311 34. (1025 / 25 + 20) * 3 = a. 813 b. 183
d. 7026
e. 6072
d. 773
e. 723
d. 571
e. 351
c. 381
d. 184
e. 188
35. (1000 / 10 + 20) – (20 + 200 / 10) = a. 89 b. 18 c. 80 36. (144 / 12 * 3) – (21 / 7 + 16) = a. 711 b. 117 c. 17 37. (200 / 10 * 3 – 2) * (100 * 3 + 200 – 20) = a. 40872 b. 27840 c. 28740 38. (800 / 8 * 3 + 25) – (20 + 20 * 6 / 2) = a. 240 b. 452 c. 254 39. (900 * 5 – 20 + 15) – (30 * 3 – 20 + 10) = a. 4415 b. 5144 c. 4151 40. (100 * 5 / 20) * (20 – 5 * 3) = a. 245 b. 1350 c. 1125 41. (450 / 50 – 25) + (10 * 3 + 10 – 5) = a. 59 b. 15 c. 19 42. (150 / 5 + 50 * 3) * (80 – 3 * 5) = a. 59711 b. 11700 c. 15600 43. (420 / 20 * 8) – (420 / 20 * 6) = a. 24 b. 42 c. 124
d. 8
e. 98
d. 71
e. 171
d. 72840
e. 24870
d. 205
e. 245
d. 4514
e. 5145
d. 125
e. 1520
d. 91
e. 51
d. 92400
e. 97100
d. 420
e. 142
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
Scantron #201
44. (180 / 10 + 20) + (20 * 3 – 18 / 2) = a. 95 b. 81 c. 88 45. (500 / 100 + 20) + (80 / 4 + 15 – 10) = a. 150 b. 50 c. 510 46. (100 * 3 – 60) * (20 * 3 + 60 – 10) = a. 26400 b. 62400 c. 24600 47. (3654 – 20 / 2) – (810 * 3 – 500) = a. -411 b. 1714 c. -113 48. (4125 * 3 – 50) + (512 / 2 – 20) = a. 15261 b. 52161 c. 16521 49. (700 * 3 / 2) – (20 * 3 + 60 – 50) = a. 890 b. 980 c. 1981 50. (592 * 82) – (15 * 10 – 50) = a. 84444 b. 48444 c. 84848 51. (5 * 5 * 5) * (6 * 6 * 6) = a. 72000 b. 27000
d. 89
e. 59
d. 5
e. 15
d. 6420
e. 4260
d. 411
e. 117
d. 12561
e. 12615
d. 1890
e. 9180
d. 48484
e. 148444
c. 70044
d. 77000
e. 44770
52. (1 * 2 * 5) * (10 * 10 – 2) = a. 900 b. 890 c. 980 53. (9 * 9 / 9) – (10 – 2 * 3 + 15 – 20) = a. -10 b. 10 c. 100 54. (8 * 9 / 6 + 15) + (9 * 3 – 21 + 5) = a. 86 b. 183 c. 138 55. (64 / 8 + 16 – 10) + (16 * 3 – 15 + 20) = a. 167 b. 67 c. 176 56. (15 * 15 / 3 + 60) + (10 / 2 + 60) = a. 120 b. 100 c. 200 57. (80 * 3 / 2 + 60) – (50 – 6 * 3) = a. 41 b. 84 c. 48
d. 800
e. 950
d. -110
e. 101
d. 83
e. 38
d. 76
e. 28
d. 210
e. 20
d. 148
e. 180
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…) 58. (15 * 6 / 2 + 60 – 15) – (12 / 6 + 12 – 6) = a. 82 b. 98 c. 28 59. (150 * 5 – 20 + 60) + (10 + 40 * 6 – 5) = a. 5301 b. 1035 c. 5031 60. (80 * 3 – 20 + 15) – (60 * 2 / 5) = a. 112 b. 211 c. 121 61. (25 * 25 – 15) + (1520 / 20 – 60) = a. 262 b. 662 c. 626
Scantron #201
d. 24
e. 68
d. 1085
e. 1050
d. 1121
e. 1211
d. 226
e. 1626
62. (6 * 3 + 500 – 10) * (6 * 5 * 1 / 2 + 60 – 18) = a. 65982 b. 28956 c. 29856 d. 29568 63. (420 * 2 – 60 / 2) + (60 * 3 – 80 / 2) = a. 948 b. 589 c. 450 64. (64 / 8 * 16 + 50) – (5 * 16 / 2) = a. 138 b. 183 c. 1138 65. (356 * 356 / 2 – 20) – (12 * 12 – 12 + 6) = a. 63120 b. 36210 c. 10261 66. (15 * 20 – 60 + 81) + (98 / 2 – 16 * 3) = a. 223 b. 420 c. 232 67. (860 * 3 – 2) + (98 * 3 – 15) = a. 8257 b. 5728 c. 2857 68. (11 * 11 + 15 – 3) + (16 * 3 – 12) = a. 196 b. 169 c. 69 69. (18 * 16 / 2) * (15 * 3 + 6 – 18) = a. 4752 b. 7452 c. 2574 70. (19 * 3 / 3) – (12 * 2 – 18) = a. 3113 b. 31 c. 311 71. (36 / 3 + 12 – 6) + (9 * 8 + 25) = a. 115 b. 511 c. 151 72. (100 / 2) / (3 + 5 – 6) = a. 125 b. 52
e. 29652
d. 950
e. 440
d. 2183
e. 284
d. 63210
e. 32610
d. 322
e. 412
d. 2587
e. 7285
d. 96
e. 1169
d. 5247
e. 14752
d. 131
e. 13
d. 1115
e. 5115
c. 25
d. 121
e. 152
73. (14 * 3 + 15 – 20) – (12 / 6 + 5) = a. 3 b. 300 c. 130
d. 42
e. 30
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…) 74. (85 * 6 – 15 + 20) – (82 – 60+15) = a. 225 b. 478 c. 525 75. (75 * 3 – 15 + 86) – (64 + 18 – 25) = a. 932 b. 239 c. 393 76. (400 * 3 + 20) * (20 + 16 – 20) = a. 19520 b. 15920 c. 12950 77. (50 * 3 + 16 – 10) – (21 + 7 – 2) = a. 163 b.160 c. 130 78. (120 * 3 + 6 – 5) – (20 + 50 – 10 * 3) = a. 118 b. 812 c. 811 79. (100 * 6 + 14 – 10) + (12 – 6 * 3 + 8) = a. 630 b. 600 c. 603 80. (80 / 2 + 15 * 3) + (12 – 6 * 6 + 18) = b. 829 c. 179 a. 79 81. (500 / 50 * 3 + 15) + (8 * 5 – 4 * 3) = a. 715 b. 153 c. 73 82. (300 * 3 + 56 – 12) + (46 * 3 – 81) = a. 1 b. 10 c. 1001 83. (100 / 2 + 60 – 8) – (60 + 5 – 82) = a. 121 b. 819 c. 191 84. (800 / 2 + 61) – (81 * 3 – 5) = a. 223 b. 323 c. 232 85. (234 * 3 + 652 – 125) + (983 – 64 * 3) = a. 2020 b. 3220 c. 3986 86. (900 / 9 + 16 – 5) + (64 / 8 + 6) = a. 118 b. 18 c. 811 87. (8000 / 8) + (961 – 64 * 3 / 2) = a. 1685.5 b. 1586.5 c. 6581.5 88. (36 / 6 – 562 * 3) + (6194 * 1 – 5 + 2) = a. 7859 b. 7482 c. 4523 89. (4500 / 5 + 16 – 8) + (61 – 2 * 2) = a. 965 b. 1026 c. 9056
Scantron #201
d. 252
e. 1521
d. 924
e. 242
d. 19250
e. 12592
d. 310
e. 610
d. 321
e. 181
d. 663
e. 606
d. 219
e. 679
d. 321
e. 63
d. 1281
e. 1862
d. 911
e. 119
d. 233
e. 583
d. 3002
e. 3000
d. 282
e. 125
d. 2345.5
e. 1865
d. 4511
e. 8742
d. 1659
e. 1206
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
Scantron #201
90. (600 / 2 + 16 – 8) + (619 – 7 * 2) = a. 913 b. 1391 c. 1532 91. (864 / 9 + 897 – 21) – (64 – 2 + 5) = a. 5090 b. 500 c. 900 92. (42 / 2 + 60 – 8) + (61 – 8 * 3) = a. 200 b. 232 c. 110 93. (5100 / 85 + 51 – 6) – (61 + 64 – 124) = a. 401 b. 1004 c. 140 94. (894 / 6 + 65 – 12) + (346 * 3 – 54) = a. 1186 b. 1816 c. 1168 95. (652 / 2 + 61) + (64 – 16 * 3) = a. 304 b. 531 c. 340 96. (81 / 9 + 54 – 2) + (64 / 8 * 3 + 5) = a. 10 b. 9 c. 91 97. (1085 / 5 + 15 – 6) + (64 / 8 – 46) = c. -281 a. 188 b. -218 98. (2500 / 100 + 50) + (98 * 2 – 15) = a. 265 b. 625 c. 652 99. (368 / 4 + 61 – 5) + (98 * 2 – 4 + 6) = a. 643 b. 634 c. 364 100. (400 / 20 + 62) + (61 – 5 * 3 + 2) = a. 210 b. 252 c. 130
d. 1352
e. 1871
d. 509
e. 905
d. 2010
e. 2110
d. 104
e. 410
d. 6811
e. 6181
d. 403
e. 4130
d. 90
e. 89
d. -818
e. -624
d. 256
e. 2625
d. 1346
e. 346
d. 522
e. 255
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
Scantron #301
1. 100 / 5 * 10 + 60 – 15 = a. 207 b. 245 2. 500 / 10 * 16 + 55 – 3 = a. 228 b. 822
c. 542
d. 425
e. 40
c. 528
d. 258
e. 852
3. 1600 / 100 * 55 + 100 – 600 = a. 830 b. 380 c. 300 4. 800 / 5 * 34 + 34 – 80 = a. 5394 b. 9453
d. 38
e. 42
c. 4582
d. 5390
e. 3590
5. 10 / 1 * 594 + 600 – 350 = b. 9190 c. 6190 a. 6161
d. 9160
e. 1690
6. (150 / 10 * 80 + 37 – 28) + (500 / 50 * 82 + 64 – 15) = b. 7280 c. 7208 d. 2078 a. 8217 7. (300 / 30 * 8 + 3 – 1) – (1000 / 200 * 60 + 15 – 3) = a. 207 b. 320 c. 510 d. 320 8. (1000 / 10 * 46 + 1234 – 18) * (20 / 2 * 44 + 98 – 102) = b. 535776 c. 2776265 d. 335287 a. 2535776 9. (1900 / 100 * 3 + 2 – 1) + (16 / 2 * 6 + 85 – 40) = a. 511 b. 151 c. 1511 d. 1145 10. (200 / 20 * 4 + 356 – 3) + (100 / 10 * 9 + 54 + 3) = a. 54 b. 450 c. 540 d. 560 11. (325 / 5 * 10 + 16 – 14) * (100 / 10 * 86 + 32 – 16) = a. 785421 b. 551452 c. 552178 d. 715522 12. (16 + 85 + 64 + 98 + 102) + (16 + 85 + 64 + 98 + 103) = a. 317 b. 731 c. 137 d. 831 13. (54 * 16 * 3) * (2 * 3 * 4) = a. 68452 b. 62222 c. 20872 14. (567 – 324 – 100) + (854 – 235 – 64) = a. 697 b. 986 c. 987 15. 600 / 100 * 5 * 4 = a. 120 b. 210
e. 8720
e. -230
e. 353778
e. 541
e. 547
e. 571152
e. 1731
d. 62208
e. 20862
d. 867
e. 698
c. 110
d. 140
e. 121
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Math Courses
Complex Math (continued…)
16. 80 / 8 * 16 + 8 – 4 = a. 641 b. 461 17. 100 / 10 * 2 + 86 – 5 = a. 101 b. 110 18. 154 / 2 * 15 + 47 – 6 = a. 9116 b. 1196 19. 250 / 5 * 10 + 16 – 9 = a. 500 b. 708 20. 600 / 60 * 5 + 15 – 4 = a. 664 b. 160
Scantron #301
c. 164
d. 1641
e. 1461
c. 10
d. 105
e. 150
c. 9611
d. 1916
e. 6191
c. 57
d. 507
e. 705
c. 610
d. 16
e. 61
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Mathematics
Percents
Scantron #301
Please complete the following percent problems using a calculator. Press every key in order. Example: 120 * 5% = 6
21. 100 * 5%= a. 100
b. 5
c. 10
d. 500
e. 50
22. 1000 * 25%= a. 100 b. 25 23. 600 * 15%= a. 15 b. 9 24. 1000 * 35%= a. 350 b. 530 25. 700 * 10%= a. 10 b. 40 26. 3000 * 65%= a. 5945 b. 1095 27. 60 * 85%= a. 150
c. 510
d. 250
e. 500
c. 9000
d. 900
e. 90
c. 35
d. 353
e. 450
c. 70
d. 07
e. 700
c. 9510
d. 1950
e. 1590
b. 15
c. 51
d. 60
e. 85
28. 120 * 11%= a. 31.2 b. 13.2 29. 320 * 18%= a. 57.6 b. 56.7 30. 2000 * 20%= a. 20 b. 44 31. 35 * 6%= a. 350
c. 23.1
d. 2.31
e. 1.34
c. 76.5
d. 76.4
e. 57.1
c. 200
d. 40
e. 400
b. 6
c. 21
d. 1.2
e. 2.1
32. 100 * 54%= a.77 b. 100 33. 54 * 10%= a.54
c. 54
d. 45
e. 55
b. 5.4
c. 4.5
d. 50
e. 10
34. 456 * 35%= a. 159.6 b. 195.6
c. 519.6
d. 691.5
e. 961.5
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Mathematics
Percents (continued…)
35. 864 * 95%= a. 864 b. 82.08 36. 444 * 16%= a. 444 b. 16 37. 546 * 32%= a. 546 b. 174.72 38. 321 * 15%= a. 15 b. 321 39. 54 * 8%= a. 4.32 b. 32.4 40. 432 * 17%= a. 44.37 b. 74.34 c. 28.02 d. 820.8
Scantron #301
e. 802.8
c. 71.04
d. 41.07
e. 17.40
c. 72.10
d. 417.02
e. 32
c. 48.51
d. 84.15
e. 48.15
c. 2.34
d. 15
e. 321.15
c. 73.44
d. 37.44
e. 44.73
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Mathematics
Problem Solving
Read the below statements then answer the following questions.
Scantron #301
Paul purchased 8 computers which cost him a total of $6,016 and Mary purchased 8 printers which cost her $1,080. Steve purchased 25 DVD movies which cost $350 and Sally purchased 34 cd’s which cost $306.
41. How much would 3 computers, 4 printers, 15 DVD’s, and 18 cd’s cost? a. 432 b. 324 c. 234 d. 6818 e. 3168 42. How much would 40 cd’s, 15 computers, 16 printers, and 105 DVD’s cost? a. 4156 b. 15270 c. 27015 d. 81270 e. 8147 43. How much would 7 computers, 9 printers, 23 DVD’s, and 30 cd’s cost? a. 7071 b. 7701 c. 1707 d. 7007 e. 1170 44. How much would 17 computers, 18 printers, 5 DVD’s, and 16cd’s cost? a. 8452 b. 5148 c. 15428 d. 42815 e. 51428 45. How much would 3 computers, 6 printers, and 30 cd’s cost? a. 6821 b. 3663 c. 3336 d. 6333 46. How much would 6 cd’s, 15 printers, and 13 computers cost? a. 55811 b. 85114 c. 12855 d. 11855
e. 3636
e. 85511
47. How much would 1 computer, 1 printer, 1 DVD movie, and 1 cd cost? a. 109 b. 910 c. 1910 d. 9910 e. 8742 48. How much would 10 computers, 5 printers, 5 DVD’s, and 6 cd’s cost? a. 8319 b. 9183 c. 8172 d. 8913 e. 1389 49. How much would 25 computers cost? a. 18700 b. 81800 c. 18800 50. How much would 7 printers and 6 DVD’s cost? a. 9210 b. 1028 c. 2109
d. 17800
e. 18250
d. 2910
e. 1029
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Mathematics
Problem Solving (Continued…)
Scantron #301
It takes 320 miles to travel from point A to point B. It takes 550 miles to travel from point B to point C. It takes 660 miles to travel from point C to point D. It takes twice as long to travel from point D to point E then it does to travel from point A to point B.
51. How many miles does it take to travel from point A to point B? a. 230 b. 320 c. 660 d. 860 e. 230 52. How many miles does it take to travel from point B to point C then back to point B? a.900 b. 1000 c. 100 d. 1100 e. 1011 53. Traveling at 80 miles per hour, how long would it take to get from point A to point B? a. 80 hrs b. 3 hrs c. 40 hrs d. 14 hrs e. 4 hrs 54. Traveling at 50 miles per hour, how long would it take to get from point B to point C? a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14 e. 15 55. How many miles does it take to travel from point D to point E? a. 6.4 b. 64 c. 640 d. 460 e. 445 56. How many miles does it take to travel from point A to point B, then from point B to point C, then from point C to point D? a. 30 b. 15 c. 350 d. 1350 e. 1530 57. Traveling at 60 miles an hour, how long would it take to travel from point C to point D? a. 11 hrs b. 10 hrs c. 9 hrs d. 110 hrs e. 15 hrs 58. How many miles does it take to travel from point B to point C? a. 55 b. 550 c. 5550 d. 4512 e. 450 59. How many miles does it take to travel from point C to point D? a. 100 b. 560 c. 45 d. 66 e. 660 60. Which is farther, point A to point B or point D to point E? a. D to E b. A to B c. same distance d. A to E
e. E to B
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Mathematics
Problem Solving Using Charts
Name Michael Sally Jennifer Scott Steve Tony Callie Marc Michelle Alice Isaiah Maria Greg Jose Francis Angela Sophia Chris Grace Marcus Denise Age 21 18 36 52 39 41 19 22 46 62 23 39 45 65 42 18 26 27 34 42 27 Gender Male Female Female Male Male Male Female Male Female Female Male Female Male Male Female Female Female Male Female Male Female Occupation Sales Accounting Public service Lawyer Construction Unemployed Judge Accounting Administrative Retired Public service Lawyer Accounting Sales Administrative Judge Public service Construction Sales Lawyer Waitress State of Birth Texas Ohio California Florida Montana Wyoming New York Texas Nevada Ohio Texas Ohio Washington Arizona Texas California California Texas Michigan California Texas
Scantron #301
State of Residence Texas Texas Florida California Oklahoma Texas Hawaii Texas Louisiana Ohio Colorado Utah Oregon Arizona Texas Florida Texas Idaho Tennessee California Texas
61. How many males over 35 live in Texas? a. 5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 0 62. How many females under 50 are listed above? a. 14 b. 12 c. 10 d. 15
e. 10
e. 11
63. How many people were born and still live in the same state? a. 6 b. 3 c. 1 d. 7 e. 9 64. How many people work in public service? a. 3 b. 10 c. 4 d. 0 65. How many males under 50 are listed above? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 0
e. 12
e. 15
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52
Mathematics
Problem Solving Using Charts (continued…)
66. How many people were born in California but now live in Texas? a. 16 b. 8 c. 12 d. 0 e. 1 67. How many males listed were born in Texas? a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. 10 68. How many different occupations are listed? a. 15 b. 18 c. 12 d. 10
Scantron #301
e. 3
e. 8
69. What is the total number of males and females above the age of thirty? a. 11 b. 7 c. 12 d. 8 e. 4 70. How many males and females live in Texas? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 7
e. 15
71. What is the total number of males and females born in California? a. 4 b. 5 c. 1 d. 3 e. 15 72. How many different occupations are listed for people who live in Texas? a. 4 b. 7 c. 5 d. 8 e. 6 73. How many different occupations are listed for people who live in California? a. 0 b. 6 c. 2 d. 8 e. 1 74. How many different occupations are listed for people who live in Ohio? a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 0 e. 1 75. How many people live in a state other than the one they were born in? a. 4 b. 13 c. 12 d. 14 e. 41
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Houston Corporate Office: 11811 East Frwy #300 Houston, TX 77029 (713) 453-0310
53
Mathematics
Problem Solving Using Graphs
Scantron #301
Study the below graph and answer the following questions. There may be more than one answer. Monthly Sales Chart
450 400 350 300 250 200 150 100 50 0 Jan. March May July Sept. Nov.
76. In which month were sales at 300? a. March b. Feb c. Jan 77. In which months were sales above 250? a. Jan b. Feb c. May 78. Which 3 months had the same amounts in sales? a. May b. March c. April 79. In which month were sales at 350? a. Jan b. Aug c. June 80. In which month were sales below 150? a. Aug b. Feb c. Dec
d. Dec
e. Sept
d. July
e. Aug, Nov, Dec
d. Aug
e. June
d. Feb
e. Dec
d. Nov
e. Oct
81. What is the amount in sales for the month of June? a. 150 b. 250 c. 200 d. 350 82. Which month had the highest amount in sales? b. Feb c. Dec a. Jan 83. Which month had the lowest amount in sales? a. Oct b. Nov c. Jan
e. 400
d. March
e. April
d. March
e. April
84. What are the total sales for the month of February? a. 375 b. 350 c. 300 d. 250 85. What are the total sales for the months of January and June? a. 250 b. 350 c. 550 d. 500
e. 150
e.400
Houston Corporate Office: 11811 East Frwy #300 Houston, TX 77029 (713) 453-0310
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Mathematics
Fractions
Scantron #301
When multiplying or adding fractions just simply multiply or add straight across. You do not have to reduce to the lowest terms in this course. Example: 3 * 2= 6 4 7 28 86. 5 * 3 = 7 4 a. 25 25 87. 1 * 3 = 2 1 a. 1 2 88. 4 * 1 = 5 7 a. 7 9 89. 3 * 5 = 8 7 a. 15 56 90. 8 * 6 = 5 7 a. 47 12 b. 24 18 c. 84 17 d. 48 35 e. 12 25 b. 8 8 c. 7 56 d. 4 12 e. 21 17 b. 4 35 c. 14 8 d. 8 5 e. 7 6 b. 4 5 c. 7 5 d. 6 4 e. 3 2 b. 15 7 c. 15 28 d. 16 28 e. 3 8
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Mathematics
Number Line
Symbol = > 4 2 ) because the sum of 8 +19 is greater than the sum of 5 + 5 91. 24 ( ) 35 a.
b. =
c. >
92.
b. =
c. >
93.
b. =
c. >
94.
91 + 18 + 27 ( ) 45 * 3 a.
c. >
95.
18 / 6 * 3 + 15 – 6 ( ) 20 / 5 * 4 + 6 – 2 a. 24 + 24 – 48 ( ) 48 – 24 – 24 a. 88 / 8 * 16 + 5 ( ) 100 / 20 * 6 + 4 a. 255567 ( ) 25567 a.
96.
97.
98.
c. >
99.
1000008000 ( ) 100000800 a. 98764871 ( ) 98764871 a.
100.
c. >
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56
Mathematics
Algebra I Basic
Scantron #401
Please complete the following Algebra problems. Replace each letter with the equaling = number below. Figure each problem from left to right. For problems with parenthesis first figure the problems within the parenthesis ( ), then calculate the remaining function. a=20 b=15 y=8 z=35 x=11 k=85 p=62 r=18 v=48 j=3 g=12
Example: y + 15= Answer: 23 because y= 8 1. y + 8 = a. 14
b. 8
c. 16
d. 61
e. 12
2. a + z – r = a. 373 b. 12 3. y * b + z + a – p = a. 113 b. 331
c. 42
d. 37
e. 73
c. 52
d. 51
e. 114
4. (a + 100 + x) + (k * b) = b. 2541 c. 4106 a. 6104 5. (y + b – a) * (v / g + k – p) = a. 0 b. 81 c. 18 6. z – y – b = a. 8 b. 66 7. 20 + a + b + y = a. 36 b. 63
d. 1604
e. 1406
d. 88
e. 11
c. 12
d. 21
e. 44
c. 42
d. 636
e. 73
8. (b + a – y) + (k + j + 15 + x) = a. 131 b. 441 c. 114
d. 411
e. 141
9. (k + a + v + j) * (19 + y + k + v) = a. 23960 b. 24960 c. 96024 d. 42960 10. b + 30 + 15 – z= a. 15 b. 20
e. 69240
c. 18
d.25
e. 52
11. (j * k * b + g – x) + (p + r + v) = a. 3495 b. 9364 c. 3954 d. 9345
e. 3549
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Mathematics
Algebra I Basics (continued…)
12. z + r + a + k – j= a. 551 b. 155 c. 1515 d.165 e. 541
Scantron #401
13. p + r + g + a – a – g – r – p= a. 30 b. 540 c. 120 14. v * b * p * z= a. 154800 b. 1562400
d.5
e. 0
c. 1652400
d.521400
e. 1654200
15. 156 + z + j + y + 64 – 13= a. 235 b. 225 c. 523 16. p * g * j * 5 + 16 – 12= a. 11164 b.11264 17. (k – z) + (p + 85 – 16)= a. 117 b. 112
d.253
e. 352
c. 11364
d.64111
e. 11245
c. 118
d.811
e. 181
18. (68 + 145) + (98 + 87 + 52)= a. 559 b. 459 c. 954 19. (b + x + g) + (18 + j)= a. 59 b. 49
d.549
e. 450
c. 95
d.55
e. 54
20. (z + x + a + b) * (p + v + k)= a. 15695 b. 14795 c. 15795 21. (y + b + g) + (p + r + g)= a. 10 b. 130 c. 371 22. (x – j * g) + (b * x) = a. 262 b. 122
d.79515
e. 95715
d.271
e. 127
c. 140
d. 261
e. 621
23. (a + a + a + a) + (b + b + b + b) = a. 140 b. 410 c. 40 24. (k – p) * (r – j) = a. 340 b. 345
d. 240
e. 400
c. 453
d. 435
e. 535
25. (g / j + y – x) + (g / j + y – x) = a. 1 b. 12 c. 2
d. 20
e. 40
KEEP UP THE GOOD WORK!!!
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Mathematics
Algebra I Intermediate
Please complete the following Algebra problems by finding the value of x or y. Example: x – 5 = 30 (What number minus – five would equal to 30?) Answer: x = 35 26. x – 2 = 20 a. 2 27. y + 50 = 600 a. 50 28. x – 100 = 300 a. 200 29. y + 20 = 80 a. 100 30. x – 30 = 50 a. 30 31. y + 35 = 70 a. 105 32. x – 18 = 42 a. 60 33. y – 320 = 500 a. 810 34. x + 500 = 2000 a. 2000 35. y + 75 = 100 a. 52 36. x * 20 = 100 a. 5 37. x * 15 = 225 a. 522 38. y * 10 = 1000 a. 10000
Scantron #401
b. 22
c. 12
d. 30
e. 20
b. 650
c. 550
d. 505
e. 600
b. 4
c. 4000
d. 40
e. 400
b. 40
c. 6
d. 60
e. 80
b. 80
c. 18
d. 20
e. 50
b. 70
c. 35
d. 53
e. 13
b. 06
c. 42
d. 18
e. 50
b. 500
c. 320
d. 280
e. 820
b. 1000
c. 500
d. 1500
e. 5100
b. 25
c. 225
d. 75
e. 100
b. 55
c. 200
d. 20
e. 100
b. 225
c. 15
d. 51
e. 115
b. 25
c. 1000
d. 10
e. 100
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Mathematics
Algebra I Intermediate (continued…)
39. y * 50 = 500 a. 100 40. x / 20 = 3 a. 60 41. y / 100 = 1000 a. 10 42. y / 25 = 625 a. 25 43. x / 6 = 144 a. 60 44. x / 52 = 2 a. 104 45. y * 86 = 258 a. 86 46. x * 87 = 87 a. 3 47. y + 54 + 68 = 158 a. 30 48. 87 + x + 97 = 187 a. 3 49. 15 * 4 + 6 – x = 58 a. 15 50. y / 16 + 84 = 92 a. 87 b. 10 c. 500 d. 50
Scantron #401
e. 5000
b. 20
c. 3
d. 23
e. 600
b. 100000
c. 10000
d. 1000
e. 100
b. 15600
c. 15624
d. 15625
e. 62515
b. 144
c. 864
d. 648
e. 444
b. 401
c. 52
d. 2
e. 12
b. 9
c. 8
d. 6
e. 3
b. 165
c. 1
d. 87
e. 10
b. 33
c. 26
d. 36
e. 63
b. 6
c. 97
d. 87
e. 100
b. 8
c. 18
d. 82
e. 64
b. 15
c. 126
d. 128
e. 821
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Mathematics
Geometry
Geometry is the study of figures and shapes. Perimeter is the distance around a figure.
Scantron #401
Example: Perimeter for a square is the total of all 4 sides. Note: all 4 sides are equal in size. Perimeter for a rectangle is the length multiplied by 2 and the width multiplied by 2. Perimeter for a triangle is the total of all 3 sides. Squares 8 in. 15 in.
Rectangles 17 in. length
25 in. length
8
11
Triangles 6 in. 6 in. 14 in. 5 in. 14 in.
13 in.
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Mathematics
Geometry (continued…)
Answer the below problems according to the directions for each one. 51. What is the perimeter of the smaller square? a. 32 b. 23 c. 8 d. 16 52. What is the perimeter of the larger square? a. 45 b. 85 c. 60 d. 30 53. What is the perimeter of the smaller rectangle? a. 34 b. 16 c. 17 d. 8 54. What is the perimeter of the larger rectangle? a. 27 b. 72 c. 25 d. 50 55. What is the perimeter of the smaller triangle? a. 11 b. 5 c. 12 d. 17 56. What is the perimeter of the larger triangle? a. 14 b. 41 c. 28 d. 13 57. What is the total length of the smaller rectangle? a. 34 b. 50 c. 17 d. 8 58. What is the total width of the larger rectangle? a. 11 b. 12 c. 22 d. 50
Scantron #401
e. 24
e. 15
e. 50
e. 22
e. 71
e. 12
e. 13
e. 72
59. What is the total length of the small and larger rectangle? a. 80 b. 34 c. 50 d. 84 e. 48 60. What is the perimeter of the smaller square and the larger triangle? a. 80 b. 68 c. 32 d. 28 e. 73 61. What is the total width of the larger rectangle and the perimeter of the smaller triangle? a. 17 b. 39 c. 22 d. 50 e. 42 62. What is the total perimeter of the 3 smaller shapes? a. 99 b. 101 c. 105 d. 97 63. What is the total perimeter of the 3 larger shapes? a. 175 b. 168 c. 52 d. 173
e. 89
e. 371
64. What is the total perimeter of the larger square, the smaller rectangle, and the larger triangle? a. 154 b. 153 c. 151 d. 152 e. 150 65. What is the total of the 2 equal sides of the larger triangle? a. 42 b. 41 c. 23 d. 82 e. 28
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Mathematics
Geometry (continued…)
66. What is the total of the non-equal sides of the smaller and larger triangle? a. 16 b. 18 c. 5 d. 13 e. 15
Scantron #401
67. What is the total perimeter of the larger square, the smaller triangle, and the larger rectangle? a. 149 b. 185 c. 165 d. 151 e. 147 68. What is the total perimeter of all the shapes? a. 268 b. 185 c. 260 d. 272
e. 727
69. Take the total perimeter of all the shapes then subtract it by 52. a. 216 b. 220 c. 133 d. 208 e. 675 70. What is the total width of both rectangles and the perimeter of the smaller triangle? a. 30 b. 44 c. 47 d. 45 e. 55 71. Subtract the total perimeter of the larger square by the total perimeter of the larger triangle. a. 19 b. 18 c. 60 d. 41 e. 17 72. Add the total perimeter of the smaller square with the total perimeter of the larger rectangle then subtract that by the total perimeter of the smaller triangle. a. 83 b. 84 c. 87 d. 78 e. 85 73. Add the total perimeter of the larger square, rectangle, and triangle, then subtract it by 105. b. 64 c. 86 d. 68 e. 66 a. 63 74. What is the total length of the larger rectangle and the perimeter of the larger square? a. 111 b. 110 c. 116 d. 85 e. 132 75. Multiply the total perimeter of the smaller square and the larger square, then add it to the total width of the smaller rectangle. Then subtract it by the perimeter of the smaller triangle. a. 1919 b. 9191 c. 1918 d. 1819 e. 2104
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Mathematics
Measurements
Answer the questions according to the standard units of measure listed below. Units of Length 12 inches = 1 foot 3 feet = 36 inches = 1 yard 5280 feet = 1760 yards = 1 mile Units of Capacity 8 ounces = 1 cup 2 cups = 16 ounces = 1 pint 2 pints = 4 cups = 32 ounces = 1 quart 4 quarts = 8 pints = 16 cups = 128 ounces = 1 gallon
Scantron #401
Units of Weight 16 ounces = 1 pound 2000 pounds = 1 ton
Units of Time 60 seconds = 1 minute 60 minutes = 1 hour 24 hours = 1 day 7 days = 1 week 52 weeks = 1 year 12 months = 1 year 365 days = 1 year e. 2
76. How many feet are in 48 inches? a. 12 b. 48 c. 4 77. How many inches are in 16 feet? a. 192 b. 160 c. 291
d. 36
d. 425
e. 191
78. How many yards are equal to 1872 inches? a. 25 b. 50 c. 63 d. 52 79. How many feet are there in 16 miles? a. 48480 b. 84880 c. 44880 80. How many inches are there in 1 mile? a. 33360 b. 63360 c. 33630 81. How many ounces are in 15 cups? a. 210 b. 114 c. 120 82. How many ounces are in 14 pints? a. 224 b. 220 c. 442 83. How many quarts are in 224 ounces? a. 16 b. 32 c. 224 84. How many quarts are in 12 gallons? a. 40 b. 48 c. 84 85. How many pounds are in 384 ounces? a. 22 b. 38 c. 16
e. 36
d. 83480
e. 84480
d. 66064
e. 60360
d. 15
e. 1
d. 242
e. 200
d. 17
e. 7
d. 14
e. 44
d. 24
e. 48
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Mathematics
Measurements (Continued…)
86. How many tons are there in 20000 pounds? a. 1 b. 2000 c. 10 87. How many seconds are there in 40 minutes? a. 2400 b. 4200 c. 40 88. How many weeks are there in 168 days? a. 7 b. 40 c. 20 89. How many months are in 120 years? a. 1340 b. 1440 c.4410 90. How many pints are in 111 quarts? a. 24 b. 2 c. 222 91. How many yards are in 246 feet? a. 28 b. 70 c. 80 92. How many cups are in 1 quart? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 93. How many quarts are in 1 gallon? a. 8 b. 44 c. 4
Scantron #401
d. 20
e. 8
d. 60
e. 2340
d. 42
e. 24
d. 1040
e. 1000
d. 333
e. 111
d. 82
e. 81
d. 10
e. 2
d. 14
e. 10
94. If you add 32 cups and 128 ounces, how many pints would you have? a. 22 b. 24 c. 42 d. 16 e. 20 95. If you add 12 feet and 108 inches, how many yards will you have? a. 5 b. 10 c. 8 d. 17 e. 7 96. How many pints are in 1 gallon? a. 6 b. 12 c. 6 97. How many yards are in 1 mile? a. 1760 b. 1670 c. 7160 98. How many quarts are in 3 gallons? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 99. How many gallons are in 80 pints? a. 16 b. 10 c. 12 100. How many ounces are in 3 cups? a. 4 b. 16 c. 12
d. 8
e. 10
d. 1660
e. 1500
d. 21
e. 14
d. 20
e. 8
d. 42
e. 24
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Est. 2003
SOCIAL STUDIES
COURSES
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66
Social Studies
World History
Study the below chart and answer the questions that follow.
Scantron #501
Subject Dark Ages Feudal system
Explanation Roman Empire fell in 476 A.D., tribal chiefs/kings took local control.
A system where people were placed in ranks, classes, or levels. There were kings, lords, lesser lords, knights, townspeople, and peasants. Knights Followed a code of honor called chivalry, which was bravery and Christian Values. Bubonic plague Infected fleas carried by rats spread through towns killing one-third of all the Europeans Great Wall of China Only man made structure on Earth that is visible from space Joan of Arc A Peasant girl who fought against England with the French troops. She was captured and burned at the stake for heresy. Renaissance About 1400 A.D. wealthy nobles and merchants funded cultural pursuits like music, art, and literature. King Ferdinand Ruled Spain in 1492 Christopher Columbus Explored the Caribbean. Jon Cabot Explored the east coast of Canada. Amerigo Vespucci Explored the northeast coast of South America. Juan Ponce de Leon Explored Florida and Mexico Leif Ericson Many people believe he discovered America. Enlightment Period From the late 1500s and into the 1600s was a new focus on science and Technology Czar Supreme ruler. Michael Romanov Russian leader, gave nobles power over peasants who were treated like slaves in the 1600s. Peter the Great Became czar of Russia in 1682 and pushed for technological development Mexico Won independence from Spain in 1821. Adolf Hitler Responsible for the Holocaust. 1. Who was the peasant girl who fought against England with the French troops? a. Jon Cabot b. Joan of Arc c. Alissya d. Queen Elizabeth 2. When did the Roman Empire fall? a. 746 b. 476 B.C.
e. unknown
c. 476 A.D.
d. 1100s
e. unknown
3. What was the time period called when the Roman Empire fell? a. Feudal system b. Renaissance c. Dark Ages
d. Enlightment
e. unknown
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Social Studies
World History (continued…)
4. Who followed a code of honor called chivalry? a. Christopher Columbus b. Knights 5. Who explored Florida and Mexico? a. Jon Cabot b. Amerigo Vespucci 6. Who explored the Caribbean? a. Christopher Columbus c. Czar d. Peter the Great
Scantron #501
e. unknown
c. King Ferdinand
d. Juan Ponce de Leon
e. unknown
b. Jon Cabot
c. Peter the Great
d. Adolf Hitler
e. unknown
7. What year did King Ferdinand rule Spain? a. 1942 b. 1592 c. 1492
d. 2192
e. unknown
8. What period did wealthy nobles and merchants fund music, art and literature? a. Dark Ages b. Renaissance c. Holocaust d. never e. unknown 9. What is the only man made structure visible from space? a. Great Wall of China b. Grand Canyon c. Mexico 10. When was there a new focus on science and technology? a. 1100-1200 b. 1200-1300 c. 1300-1400 11. When did Mexico win independence from Spain? a. 1281 b. 1845 c. 1602 d. 479
d. Spain
e. Australia
d. 1500-1600
e. unknown
e. 1821
12. Who pushed for technological development? a. Peter the Great b. Hitler c. Michael Romanov 13. Who explored the east coast of Canada? a. King Ferdinand b. Hitler c. Jon Cabot 14. Who explored the northeast coast of South America? a. Christopher Columbus b. Amergio Vespucci 15. Who was responsible for the Holocaust? a. Jon Cabot b. Peter the Great c. Knights 16. What is a Czar? a. Supreme Ruler
d. Knights
e. unknown
d. Knights
e. Joan of Arc
c. Hitler
d. no one
e. unknown
d. Adolf Hitler
e. Joan of Arc
b. Priest
c. Noble
d. Peasant
e. unknown ? d. honor
17. The code of honor called chivalry is Christian values and a. honesty b. nothing else c. courage
e. bravery
18. Who was the Russian leader that gave nobles power over peasants? a. Joan of Arc b. unknown c. Michael Romanov d. Peter the Great
e. Hitler
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Social Studies
World History (continued…)
19. According to the chart, who explored Africa? a. Christopher Columbus b. Peter the Great c. Hitler d. Jon Cabot
Scantron #501
e. unknown
20. What was it called when people were placed in ranks? a. Dark Ages b. Feudal system c. Renaissance 21. In 1400 A.D. wealthy nobles funded music, art, and a. literature b. knights c. sewer systems
d. Holocaust ? d. roads
e. unknown
e. unknown
22. What was it called when fleas carried by rats were killing Europeans? a. Renaissance b. Dark Ages c. Holocaust d. bubonic plague 23. Tribal chiefs and kings took control in the a. Enlightment period b. Holocaust ? d. Renaissance
e. unknown
c. Dark Ages
e. unknown
24. Who do many people believe discovered America? a. Knights b. Peter the Great c. Jon Cabot
d. Hitler
e. Leif Ericson
25. According to the chart, who explored South America first? a. Joan of Arc b. Hitler c. Jon Cabot d. Peter the Great
e. unknown
KEEP UP THE GOOD WORK!
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Social Studies
U.S. History &Civil War
Read the below passage and answer the following questions.
Scantron #501
At one point our great nation was divided; half believed in slavery and the other half did not. This is one of the reasons why the civil war happened. Most of the war was fought in the south. The north had a larger army because of the greater population, better ability to manufacture goods, an excellent transportation system, and a large supply of natural resources. The advantages of the south were the greater familiarity with battle sites and great military leaders. In 1862, President Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation which ordered the freeing of slaves in slave states that were in rebellion against the union. Several of the freed slaves joined the union and fought against the south. A Proclamation (Excerpt) “That on the first day of January 1863, all persons held as slaves within any state of designated part of a state the people whereof shall then be in rebellion against the United States shall be then, thenceforward, and forever free; and the executive government of the United States, including the military and naval authority thereof, will recognize to maintain the freedom of such persons and will do no act or acts to repress such persons, or any of them, in any efforts they may make for their actual freedom.” On April 9, 1865 the war ended when Confederate General Robert E. Lee (South) surrendered.
26. Where was the majority of the Civil War fought? a. North b. Central c. West 27. What was one of the reasons why there was a civil war? c. slavery a. crops b. finances
d. East
e. South
d. land
e. railroad
28. In what year did President Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation? a. 1762 b. 1863 c. 1862 d. 1962 29. What did several of the freed slaves do after they were free? a. go back home b. fight against the south c. get jobs 30. What did Robert E. Lee do on April 9, 1865? a. won the war b. died c. surrendered
e.1865
d. buy farms
d. was ill
e. got married
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U.S. History (Continued…)
Study the below chart and answer the question that follow. Subject Christopher Columbus Norwegian Vikings French & Indian War England Treaty of Paris Thirteen Colonies Colonies King George III Stamp Act 1765 Townshend Act Boston Tea Party Thomas Jefferson Second Continental Congress George Washington George Washington Thomas Jefferson Thomas Jefferson Lewis & Clark President James Monroe Sectionalism Andrew Jackson President James Polk Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
Scantron #501
Explanation Explored the Caribbean, Died in 1506. Traveled to the New World 400 years before Columbus set sail. In the mid 1700s England & France fought over the land in Northern and Central parts of North America Won the French & Indian War in 1763. Gave England control over the East coast of North America to the Mississippi. Land from Georgia to Maine. Many different groups of people lived in the 13 colonies brought with them different customs, religious beliefs, and dialects. Decided that colonists who benefited from the French & Indian War need to pay for the war debt by placing the Stamp & Townshend Act. Required all official document in the colonies to have a British stamp paid for with a new tax Placed a large import tax on glass, lead and tea Colonists outraged by the new taxes dumped tea into the Boston Harbor Drafted the Declaration of Independence Approved the Declaration on July 4, 1776 1st President of the United States Between 1791-1796 Vermont, Kentucky, and Tennessee were admitted to the Union under the administration of George Washington Admitted Ohio to the Union in 1803 Double the size of the county by paying France $15 million for the Louisiana Purchase Appointed by Thomas Jefferson to explore the new land of the Louisiana Purchase In 1823 Monroe proclaimed to the world that European powers would no longer be allowed to colonize the Americas Political, cultural, and economic differences among regions of the country Elected President in 1828 Was unable to purchase the territory that included New Mexico and California, the United States declared war on Mexico in 1846 This treaty ended the war which resulted in the Mexican Cession in 1848
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Mexican Government
Tariffs Slavery Abraham Lincoln Confederate States of America
Confederate States of America Jefferson Davis President Lincoln Fort Sumter President Johnson Vietnam War Richard M. Nixon Jimmy Carter Ronald Regan George Bush Bill Clinton
Gave the United States the land that is known today as California, Utah, Nevada, some parts of Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, and Wyoming Taxes imposed on goods imported into a country A main reason for the Civil War (North against South) Elected President in 1860 Southern States felt that they were being treated unfairly by the North voted to withdraw from the United States and form their own Government. The Confederate States of America South Carolina, Georgia, Florida, Alabama, Mississippi, Louisiana, and Texas were part of the Confederate States of America Elected President of the Confederacy Was in power when the Civil War was fought The Confederacy fired upon it in April 1861 which started the Civil War President during the Vietnam War There were 25,000 American soldiers fighting in 1963 which grew to 500,000 soldiers by 1968 Elected President in 1968 President from 1977 – 1981 President from 1981 – 1989 President from 1989 – 1993 President from 1993 – 2000
31. Who traveled to the New World 400 years before Columbus? a. English b. Norwegian Vikings c. Columbus d. Jackson
e. Robert E. Lee
32. What gave England control over the East coast of North America to the Mississippi River? a. Stamp Act b. Townshend Act c. Treaty of Paris d. Boston Tea Party e. England 33. Who was the 1st President of the United States? a. Jackson b. Bush c. Hamilton 34. Who doubled the size of the country? a. Jackson b. Bush 35. Who explored the Caribbean? a. Columbus b. Vikings
d. Washington
e. Jefferson
c. Hamilton
d. Washington
e. Jefferson
c. Jefferson
d. Washington
e. Robert Lee
36. What required all official documents to have a British stamp? a. Townshend b. Boston Tea Party c. Stamp Act
d. congress
e. Treaty of Paris
37. What was the name of the war where England and France fought over Land in America? a. Civil War b. Vietnam War c. WW I d. WW II e. French & Indian War
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Social Studies
U.S. History (Continued…)
38. Who won the French & Indian War? a. North b. England c. America ? d. Maine d. South
Scantron #501
e. Canada
39. The Thirteen colonies is land from Georgia to a. Ohio b. California c. New York
e. Texas
40. Who decided that colonists needed pay for the war debt? a. King George III b. King George II c. King George 41. Thomas Jefferson admitted a. Florida b. Texas to the Union in 1803? c. Ohio d. Maine
d. Washington
e. King George IV
e. California
42. Who appointed Lewis and Clark to explore the land in the Louisiana Purchase? a. Washington b. Columbus c. Monroe d. Polk e. Jefferson 43. Andrew Jackson was elected President in what year? a. 1791 b. 1828 c. 2818 d. 1848 44. What year was the Mexican Cession? a. 1791 b. 1828 c. 2818
e. 1882
d. 1848
e. 1882
45. Who was unable to purchase New Mexico and California? a. Polk b. Jackson c. Bush d. Jefferson
e. Columbus
46. What are political, cultural, and economic differences among regions of the country? a. Stamp Act b. Boston Tea Party c. Sectionalism d. Treaty of Paris 47. The Boston Tea Party happened because colonists were outraged by what? a. health insurance b. taxes c. construction d. food 48. Who was the President of the United States during the Vietnam War? a. Jefferson b. Washington c. Jackson d. Nixon 49. Who was President in 1991? a. Clinton b. Nixon 50. Who was President in 1982? a. Clinton b. Nixon
e. none
e. water supply
e. Johnson
c. Regan
d. Bush
e. Carter
c. Regan
d. Bush
e. Carter
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Social Studies
Economics
Read the below passage and answer the following questions.
Scantron #501
Economics study how a society meets its unlimited material needs with its limited resources. Because resources are limited it requires people to make choices about what needs to satisfy. Supply & Demand Supply is the quantity of goods and services available for sale at all possible prices. Demand is the desire to buy the product or service and the ability to pay for it. Producers and suppliers charge prices high enough on the material they supply or produce so they can cover their costs and earn a profit. Consumers who are able to buy these goods or services create the demand for them. The amount of production of an item and the price depend on how much it costs to produce it and the public demand for it. Clothes, for example, are in high demand around the United States and abroad. Many top name brands choose to manufacture their clothing in lands such as Japan, Korea, Taiwan, Singapore, etc. instead of the U. S. because of the low costs in labor. But they sell their clothes in high priced markets such as the U. S. and Europe. Therefore, cause the manufacturer to earn high profits while keeping their costs down. Answer the below questions. 51. Economics study how a society meets its unlimited material needs with its a. unlimited b. limited c. supply d. demand 52. Supply is the quantity of goods and services available for what? a. donation b. nothing c. sale resources.
d. demand
53. Why do several clothing manufactures choose to manufacture their clothes in lands other than the U.S? a. unknown b. low cost in labor c. space available d. demand 54. What does the amount of production and the price depend on? a. nothing b. popularity c. cost & demand
d. supply
55. Demand is the desire to buy the product or service and the ability to for it. a. pay b. sell c. demand d. work
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Social Studies
Economics (Continued…)
Scantron #501
Here we will study different people, jobs, how they spend money, and their lifestyles. Study the below chart and answer the following questions. The below figures are calculated on a Monthly Basis. Name Jill Bob Mike Sherri Monica Tony Frank Jose Brandon Phillip Thomas Pamela Andrew Job Lawyer Construction Waiter Doctor Teacher Clown Writer Medical Asst. Dental Asst. Store Clerk Contractor Nurse Mechanic Salary 10,000 2,500 900 10,000 2,000 1,500 2,000 1,600 1,800 2,000 2,700 4,000 3,000 Rent 1,800 525 350 2,000 500 300 500 400 450 500 450 675 550 Bills 2,000 800 200 3,000 500 400 800 600 400 250 500 800 450 Entertainment 3,000 400 100 2,000 225 250 230 110 265 250 330 500 225 Clothes 500 100 50 1,000 100 100 100 50 75 150 150 200 50 Retirement 1,500 300 100 1,000 315 250 200 250 150 75 70 300 175
56. How much does the Dental Asst. have left over after all of her expenses above are deducted from her salary? a. 450 b. 160 c. 560 d. 460 e. 46 57. How much does the store clerk spend in 5 months for rent? a. 2500 b. 500 c. 1000 d. 1500
e. 2000
58. How many months will it take the clown to save 1,750 for retirement? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9 59. If Jill and Andrew were married, how much would they spend for clothing in 8 months? a. 1400 b. 2400 c. 3000 d. 800 e. 4400 60. Which of the people above will have 10,000 in their retirement in the next 10 months? a. Mike b. Sherri c. Andrew d. Monica e. Frank 61. Who pays more in rent, the mechanic or the medical asst? a. mechanic b. medical asst. 62. How much does Phillip spend in entertainment and bills in 3 months? a. 1800 b. 2000 c. 1250 d. 1500 e. 3250
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Social Studies
Economics (Continued…)
63. How much does Frank spend on entertainment every month? a. 30 b. 130 c. 230 d. 330 e. 430 64. Who pays the most in bills? a. Pamela b. Phillip
Scantron #501
c. Monica
d. Jill
e. Sherri
65. How much does Brandon spend on clothes and rent each month? a. 175 b. 75 c. 450 d. 525 e. 675 66. According to the chart, who makes more, the medical asst. or the dental asst? a. Medical Asst b. Dental Asst 67. Who pays the least in rent? a. clown b. lawyer
c. contractor
d. construction worker
e. nurse
68. Who puts the least into retirement each month? b. Jill c. Thomas d. Frank a. Brandon 69. How much does Monica spend on entertainment each month? a. 500 b. 150 c. 315 d. 225 e. 220 70. How much does Bob spend on bills each month? a. 80 b. 200 c. 400 d. 600 71. Who pays more for rent, Monica or Tony? a. Monica b. Tony 72. How much does Bob have left over after all expenses are paid? b. 375 c. 735 d. 370 e. 75 a. 575 73. How much does Jose spend on entertainment? a. 91 b. 101 c. 110 d. 10 74. How much does Andrew spend on bills and rent? a. 450 b. 550 c. 10000 d. 1000
e. Tony
e. 800
e. 100
e. 100
75. Who has more left over each month after expenses, the lawyer or the doctor? b. doctor a. lawyer
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Social Studies
Geography
Time Zones
Scantron #501
There are four different time zones in the US, study the below chart and answer the following questions. 11:00 AM Pacific California Washington Oregon Nevada 12:00 PM Mountain New Mexico Colorado Wyoming Montana Idaho Wyoming Arizona 1:00 PM Central Texas Oklahoma Louisiana Arkansas Alabama Tennessee North Dakota South Dakota 2:00 PM Eastern New York Florida New Jersey Vermont Maine Ohio Kentucky North Carolina
76. If it is 9:00 am in California, what time would it be in Texas? a. 9 am b. 10 pm c. 11 pm d. 11 am 77. If it is 3 pm in New York, what time is it in New Mexico? a. 12 pm b. 1 am c. 3 pm d. 1 pm 78. If it is 10 pm in Washington, what time is it in Florida? a. 1 pm b. 3 am c. 1 am d. 10 pm 79. If it is 3 pm in New Mexico, what time is it in Colorado? a. 2 am b. 3 am c. 4 am d. 3 pm 80. If it took 14 hours to travel from Oregon to New York and you left Oregon at 4 pm, what time would you arrive in New York according to the Eastern Time Zone? a. 7 am b. 8 pm c. 9 am d. 1 pm 81. If it took 14 hours to travel from Oregon to New York and you left Oregon at 4 pm, what time would you arrive in New York according to the Pacific Time Zone? a. 7 am b. 6 am c. 9 am d. 1 pm 82. If it is 3 pm in Nevada, what time is it in Texas? a. 5 pm b. 4 pm c. 3 pm
d. 6 pm
83. If traveling from Idaho to Tennessee takes 17 hours and you leave Idaho at 8 pm, what time would it be in Florida when you arrive in Tennessee? a. 2 am b. 2 pm c. 4 am d. 4 pm
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Social Studies
Geography (continued…)
Scantron #501
84. Using the same question above, what time would it be in Washington when you arrive in Tennessee? a. 8 pm b. 8 am c. 11 am d. 11 pm 85. If it is 9 pm in North Carolina, what time is it in Vermont? a. 9 pm b. 9 am c. 4 pm d. 4 am 86. If you travel from Wyoming to Alabama in 22 hours and arrived in Alabama at 8 am, what time would you have left Wyoming? a. 10 pm b. 10 am c. 4 pm d. 4 am 87. If it is 8 am in Alabama and you traveled to New York in 18 hours and you went on to New Jersey in 1 hour then went to Idaho in 6 hours, what time would it be in Nevada? a. 5 am b. 8 pm c. 8 am d. 5 pm 88. If it is 10 pm in Ohio, what time is it in California? a. 10 pm b. 7 pm c. 8 pm d. 9 pm 89. What time is it in Texas if it is 4 am in North Dakota? a. 5 am b. 2 pm c. 3 pm d. 4 am 90. If it takes 3 hours to travel from New Mexico to Colorado then 3 hours back to New Mexico, what time would it be in Vermont when they return to New Mexico if they left New Mexico at 9 pm and stayed in Colorado 5 hours before they returned to New Mexico? a. 10 am b. 11 am c. 12 am d. 9 am 91. If it is 2 pm in Maine, what time is it in Arizona? a. 2 pm b. 6 pm c. 9 am d. 12 pm 92. If it is 1 pm in California, what time is it in Kentucky? a. 4 pm b. 5 pm c. 6 pm d. 7 pm 93. If it is 12 am in Idaho, what time is it in Louisiana? c. 1 am d. 2 am a. 12 am b. 1 pm 94. If it takes 23 hours to travel from Texas to Ohio, what time would it be in Montana if you arrived in Ohio at 2 pm? a. 9 am b. 11 am c. 12 pm d. 8 pm 95. What time is it in Alabama if it is 8 pm in Texas? a. 8 pm b. 8 am c. 9 am d. 10 pm 96. What time is it in Maine if it is 3 pm in Arizona? a. 6 pm b. 4 pm c. 3 am d. 5 pm
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Social Studies
Geography (continued…)
97. What time is it in Florida if it is 4 am in North Carolina? a. 6 am b. 4 pm c. 4 am d. 6 pm 98. What time is it in Oregon if it is 2 am in Arkansas? a. 10 am b. 12 am c. 11 am d. 2 am 99. What time is it in North Dakota if it is 10 pm in South Dakota? a. 8 pm b. 9 am c. 10 pm d. 10 am 100. What time is it in Oklahoma if it is 12 am in Wyoming? a. 1 am b. 2 pm c. 12 am d. 11 pm
Scantron #501
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Est. 2003
SCIENCE COURSES
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Science
The Study of Space
Scantron #601
The Universe is everything we know that exists – all matter, space, and time. With the world’s largest telescope we can only see as far as 10 billion light years away. Stars are balls of gas that release energy produced by nuclear reactions within their cores. Most stars are similar to the Sun but because they are so far away they appear to us as just points of light. The Sun is in the middle of our Solar System and the planets that orbit around it are first Mercury, then Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Sun – the Sun is our closest star. It is average in size, temperature, and brightness when compared to other stars. The Sun is the source of heat and light for all of the planets. The Sun’s energy is generated at its core, where temperatures are estimated to reach 27 million F. Most peoples’ indoor heaters only reach 96 degrees. Mercury – the closest planet to the Sun. It is a small, rocky planet, less than half the diameter of the Earth and it looks like our own Moon because of its many craters. Mercury has no water or air and during the day it is scorched by intense sunlight, while at night its temperature falls well below freezing. The diameter of Mercury is 3,031 miles. Venus – is the planet that is closest in size to the earth, about 400 miles smaller in diameter. It is the 2nd planet from the sun and is 25 million miles away from earth. It is entirely covered by bright clouds and is the brightest object in the sky after the Sun and Moon. One orbit of the Sun takes 225 earth days. Earth – the third planet from the sun and has abundant surface water and an atmosphere with nitrogen and oxygen and the only planet known to be able to harbor life. More than 70 percent of the Earth’s surface is covered by water and 30 percent by land. It takes 1 year for the Earth to travel once around the Sun and 24 hours to spin once on its axis. The Earth’s moon is an average distance of 238,900 miles and has no air, liquid water and no weather. Mars – a small rocky planet that has a 24 hour day and a pattern of seasons that resembles Earth’s. Temperatures on Mars rarely rise above freezing; the atmosphere is thin and contains almost no oxygen. It is called the Red Planet because it is covered by red deserts. Mars has a diameter of 4,222 miles, just over half of the Earth. Jupiter – the largest planet in our Solar System. It weighs more than twice as much as all the other planets put together. It also spins faster on its axis than any other planet. One rotation takes less than 10 hours. The planet is mostly liquid hydrogen and helium and is 88,850 miles in diameter, which makes it 11 times wider than Earth. One orbit of the Sun takes 11.9 years and the planet is enveloped in a cloudy atmosphere about 600 miles deep. Jupiter has 64 confirmed moons.
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Science
The Study of Space (continued…)
Scantron #601
Saturn – the second largest planet in our Solar System and the easiest to spot using a telescope because of the broad, bright rings that encircle its equator. It has a cloudy atmosphere and the interior is liquid hydrogen and helium. Saturn also has 18 moons, and one orbit around the Sun takes 29.5 years. Near Saturn’s equator wind speeds reach 1,100 miles per hour and Saturn’s rings’ thickness is about a mile. Uranus – is known as a cold gas giant and is the third largest planet in our Solar System. Uranus was discovered in 1781 by a British astronomer, William Herschel. Uranus has a diameter of 31,800 miles and has a distinctive green coloring. The planet orbits the Sun every 84 years and makes a complete spin on its axis in 17 hours and 14 minutes. Uranus is covered in methane clouds that absorb red light, which gives the planet a greenish appearance. Its atmosphere is hydrogen, helium, and methane gases. It also has 11 thin rings and 17 moons. Neptune – this planet has an atmosphere rich in hydrogen, helium, and methane. It was discovered in 1846 and is 30,800 miles in diameter. It has a blue coloring because of methane in the upper atmosphere. It orbits the Sun every 165 years and one complete rotation takes 16 hours and 7 minutes. Neptune has 4 rings and 8 moons.
Comets – consists of frozen gas and dusts are icy remnants from the formation of the outer planets. Dust particles from comets can enter the Earth’s atmosphere where they burn up and create bright streaks in the sky often called meteors or shooting stars. Asteroids – small bodies of iron and rock. Most asteroids orbit the sun in a belt between Mars and Jupiter. The asteroid belt lies about 200 million miles from the sun. Ten thousand asteroids have been discovered and the largest asteroid, named Ceres, is 580 miles in diameter. Meteorites – are small fragments, usually from asteroids that have entered the Earth’s atmosphere and fallen to the surface. Every day about 10 meteorites fall to Earth and go unnoticed because they land in remote areas or the ocean. Large meteorites move fast enough to dig a crater when they hit the Earth, but smaller ones are slowed by the atmosphere and drop harmlessly to the ground.
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Science
The Study of Space (continued…)
Please answer the below questions according to the information you just read. 1. How many planets are in our solar system? a. 9 b. 10 c. 8 2. Which planet is the largest? a. Earth b. Venus 3. Which planet is the smallest? a. Uranus b. Saturn
Scantron #601
d. 11
c. Jupiter
d. Mars
c. Neptune
d. Mars
4. Which planet has the most moons? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune 5. Which planet is the farthest from the Sun? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune 6. What is the name of the largest asteroid? a. Ceres b. comet c. meteorite 7. What planet was discovered in 1846? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune
d. Jupiter
d. Jupiter
d. Uranus
d. Jupiter
8. Which planet is known as the cold gas giant? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune d. Mars 9. Which planet is easiest to spot using a telescope? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune d. Jupiter 10. Which planet is 31,800 miles in diameter? a. Uranus b. Saturn c. Neptune 11. What is the name of our closest star? a. Mars b. Earth c. Moon 12. Which planet is closest in size to the earth? a. Mars b. Jupiter c. Venus
d. Mercury
d. Sun
d. Earth
13. What is the source of heat and light for all of the planets? a. Jupiter b. Moon c. Earth d. Sun 14. With the world’s largest telescopes we can see only a. 8 b. 2 c. 7 d. 10 billion light years away.
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Science
The Study of Space (continued…)
15. Which planet is the closest to the Sun? a. Mercury b. Earth c. Sun d. Saturn
Scantron #601
16. Which planet is less than half the diameter of the earth and looks like our own moon? a. Mercury b. Earth c. Sun d. Saturn 17. Which planet is more than 70 percent water? a. Jupiter b. Venus c. Sun
d. Earth
18. Which planet weighs more than twice of all the planets put together? a. Jupiter b. Venus c. sun d. Earth 19. Which planet is 88,850 miles in diameter? a. Jupiter b. Venus c. Sun 20. Which planet is called the Red Planet? a. Jupiter b. Venus 21. Which planet was discovered in 1781? a. Jupiter b. Uranus 22. Comets consist of frozen gas and a. gas b. carbon dioxide
d. Earth
c. Mars
d. Earth
c. Sun ? c. helium
d. Earth
d. dusts
23. What planet orbits the Sun every 165 years? a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Mars 24. What planet is thought to have abundant surface water? a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Earth 25. Which planet has 18 moons? a. Venus b. Earth 26. Stars are balls of a. gas
d. Earth
d. Mercury
c. Saturn
d. Uranus
that release energy. b. carbon dioxide c. helium
d. dusts
27. Which planet has 4 rings and 8 moons? a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Earth 28. Which planet is covered by red deserts? a. Jupiter b .Mars c. Mercury
d. Saturn
d. Sun
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Science
The Study of Space (continued…)
29. The Asteroid belt lies about a. 150 b. 100 million miles from the sun. c. 20 d. 200
Scantron #601
30. What planet takes 84 years to orbit around the Sun? a. Earth b. Neptune c. Uranus
d. Jupiter
31. What planet has blue coloring because of methane in the upper atmosphere? a. Earth b. Neptune c. Uranus d. Jupiter 32. Where is it where temperatures reach 27 million degrees F? a. Sun b. Moon c. Earth 33. Which planet has no water or air? a. Mercury b. Venus
d. Saturn
c. Jupiter
d. Earth
34. Which planet takes 1 year to travel around the Sun? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Jupiter 35. What is 238,900 miles from the earth? a. Mercury b. Moon
d. Earth
c. Sun
d. Earth
36. Which planet has a cloudy atmosphere about 600 miles deep? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Jupiter 37. The Sun’s energy is generated at its a. core b. base . c. surface
d. Earth
d. none
38. Most orbit the sun in a belt between Mars and Jupiter. a. Meteorites b. Asteroids c. Comets
d. none
39. What are small fragments that have entered the earth’s atmosphere and fallen to the surface? a. Meteorites b. Asteroids c. Comets d. none 40. How many asteroids have been discovered? a. 9,000 b. 9,999 c. 1,000
d. 10,000
41. How many miles per hour do the wind speeds reach near Saturn’s equator? a. 750 b. 800 c. 1,100 d. 1,200 42. What planet orbits the Sun every 84 years? a. Mercury b. Uranus
c. Jupiter
d. Earth
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Science
The Study of Space (continued…)
43. What is another name for shooting stars? a. Asteroids b. Comets c. Sun d. Meteors
Scantron #601
44. Which planet spins on its axis every 16 hours and 7 minutes? a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Uranus 45. Which is the 5th planet from the Sun? a. Venus b. Neptune 46. Which is the 8th planet from the Sun? a. Venus b. Neptune 47. Which is the 2nd planet from the Sun? a. Venus b. Earth
d. Saturn
c. Jupiter
d. Saturn
c. Jupiter
d. Saturn
c. Jupiter
d. Saturn
48. Which is the only planet that is able to harbor life? a. Venus b. Earth c. Jupiter
d. Saturn
49. Which planet resembles our own Moon because of its many craters? a. Venus b. Earth c. Jupiter d. Mercury 50. What is the brightest object in the sky after the Sun and Moon? a. Venus b. Earth c. Jupiter
d. Mercury
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Science
The Study of Creation
Read the below passage and answer the following questions. According to the Bible:
Scantron #601
Genesis Chapter 1 In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. The earth was empty, a formless mass cloaked in darkness. And the spirit of God was hovering over its surface. Then God said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. And God saw that it was good. Then He separated the light from the darkness. God called the light “day” and darkness “night”. Together these made up one day. And God said, “Let there be space between the waters, to separate water from water.” And so it was. God made this space to separate the waters above from the waters below. And God called the space “sky.” This happened on the second day. And God said, “Let the waters beneath the sky be gathered into one place so that dry ground may appear.” And so it was. God named the dry ground “land” and the waters “seas.” And God saw that it was good. Then God said, “Let the land burst forth with every sort of grass and seed bearing a plant. And let there be trees that grow seed bearing fruit. The seeds will then produce the kinds of plants and trees from which they came.” And so it was. The land was filled with seed bearing plants and trees, and there seeds produced trees and plants of all kind and God saw that it was good. This all happened on the third day. And God said, “Let bright lights appear in the sky to separate the day from the night. They will be signs to mark off the seasons, the days, and the year. Let the light shine down upon the earth.” And so it was. For God made two great lights, the sun and the moon, to shine down upon the earth. The greater one, the sun, presides during the day; the lesser one, the moon, presides through the night. He also made the stars. God set these lights in the heavens to light the earth, to govern the day and the night, and to separate the light from the darkness. And God saw that it was good. This all happened on the fourth day. And God said, “Let the waters swarm with fish and other life. Let the skies be filled with birds of every kind.” So God created great sea creatures and every sort of fish and every kind of bird. And God saw that it was good. Then God blessed them, saying, “Let the fish multiply and fill the oceans. Let the birds increase and fill the earth. This all happened on the fifth day. And God said, “Let the earth bring forth every kind of animal, livestock, small animals, and wild life.” And so it was. God made all sorts of wild animals, livestock, and small animals, each able to reproduce more of its own kind. And God saw that it was good. Then God said, “Let us make man in our image after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth. So God created man in his own image; God patterned them after himself; male and female he created them.
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Science
The Study of Creation (continued…)
Scantron #601
God blessed them and told them, “Multiply and fill the earth and subdue it. Be masters over the fish and birds and all the animals,” And God said, “Look! I have given you the seed-bearing plants throughout the earth and all the fruit trees for your food. And I have given all the grasses and other green plants to the animals and birds for their food.” And so it was. Then God looked over all he had made, and he saw that it was excellent in every way. This all happened on the sixth day. So the creation of the heavens and the earth and everything in them was completed. On the seventh day, having finished his task, God rested form all his work. And God blessed the seventh day and declared it holy, because it was the day when he rested from his work of creation. This is the account of the creation of the heavens and the earth. Answer the below questions. 51. How many days did it take God to create light and darkness? a. 3 b. 7 c. 1 52. Which day did God create man? a. 7th b. 1st 53. Which day did God create fish? a. 3rd b. 5th c. 5th c. 4th
d. 6
d. 6th
d. 1st
54. What did God declare the seventh day? a. a holiday b. holy c. celebration 55. When did God create the sun and moon? a. 4th b. 5th c. 7th
d. darkness
d. 2nd may appear.”
56. God said, “Let the waters beneath the sky be gathered in one place so that dry a. ground b. grass c. trees d. sky 57. Let the waters swarm with ? a. food b. whales c. fish 58. What did God want the fish to do? a. eat b. swim
d. sharks
c. die
d. multiply
59. “And let there be trees that grow ________ bearing fruit.” a. seed b. limbs c. fruit 60. God created man in his own a. animal b. none . c. image
d. nothing
d. time
61. God wanted man to have over the sea. a. time b. domination c. nothing
d. advantage
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Science
The Study of Creation (continued…)
62. Let bright lights appear in the sky to separate the day from the a. night b. noon c. evening 63. Let their light shine down upon the a. sun b. stars . c. earth . d. moon . d. day
Scantron #601
d. moon
64. For God made two great lights, the sun and the a. Saturn b. stars c. earth 65. And God saw that it was a. ok b. good 66. What day did God separate the waters? a. 4th b. 1st . c. not good c. 3rd
d. fine
d. 2nd . d. moon
67. In the beginning, God created the heavens and the a. ground b. earth c. sky 68. On the third day God named the waters a. seas b. mountains 69. When does the sun preside? a. night b. day 70. On the 4th day God set lights to separate the light from the a. darkness b. day c. sun . c. ground
d. land
. d. night .
71. Let the earth bring forth every kind of animal, livestock, small animals, and wild a. none b. livestock c. life d. animal 72. So God created great sea creatures and every sort of fish and every kind of a. turtle b. snake c. fish d. bird 73. God named the dry ground a. ground b. land . c. water d. sky . d. light .
74. On the 3rd day the land was filled with seed bearing plants and a. people b. trees c. water 75. God called the light “day” and the darkness “ a. night b. day c. light .”
d. darkness
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Science
The Human Body
Study the below body parts and answer the questions that follow.
Scantron #601
Full Skeleton – the living skeleton is a strong, lightweight framework that is flexible. It surrounds and shapes the body and is made up of 206 bones. Joints in the skeleton are where 2 or more bones meet. The full skeleton makes up about 20 percent of our body mass. Skull – the skull not only houses the brain but also the eyes, ears, tongue and nose, which enables a person to hear, see, taste and smell. The skull has 22 bones which are broken up into 2 groups; 8 cranial bones which form the head, and 14 facial bones that form the face. Shoulder & Arm – each shoulder is formed by 2 bones, the collarbone and the shoulder blade. Three bones make up the skeleton of the arm; the humerus in the upper arm, the ulna (inner), and the radius (outer) in the lower arm. Hand & Wrist – there are 27 bones in the hand; 8 carpal bones make up the wrist, 5 long bones called metacarpals make up the palm, the fingers and thumbs are formed with 14 long bones called phalanges. Pelvis – its basin like structure consists of two coxal, or hip bones, these form the pelvic girdle. The pelvis keeps the body upright; it supports the reproductive organs and the urinary bladder in the lower abdomen. Foot – the feet bear your body’s weight, keep it balanced, and stop it from falling. The foot has 26 bones which are broader and flatter than that of the hand. Full Body – the full muscular system consists of 640 skeletal muscles that are attached to the bones of the skeleton. Skeletal muscle makes up about 40 percent of the body’s weight. Head & Neck – the head and neck contain more than 30 small facial muscles that pull on the skin of the face. Larger muscles move the head and keep it upright and also close the lower jaw during speaking and eating. Nervous System – this is a communication network that controls and coordinates most body activities. Every thought, memory, emotion, sensation, and action is a reflection of the activity of this system. There are trillions of neurons, or nerve cells, that extend throughout the body. They transmit electrical signals called nerve impulses so that all the information needed to run the body can be collected, processed, and distributed in a split second. Brain – the control center of the nervous system. The cerebellum, which is the largest part of the brain and the site of thought, memory, sensation, movement, and other aspects of conscious behavior. The cerebellum makes up 10 % of the brain and makes sure that the body stays balanced.
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Science
The Human Body (continued…)
76. How many bones does the human skeleton have? a. 15 b. 206 c. 20 d. 200 77. The full skeleton makes up about a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 78. The skull houses the a. brain b. back . c. feet percent of our body mass. d. 25
Scantron #601
d. arms
79. How many bones does the skull have? a. 8 b. 12 c. 10 80. How many facial bones form the face? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 81. How many bones form the head? a. 8 b. 16 c. 80
d. 22
d. 18
d. 18
82. Each shoulder is formed by how many bones? a. 8 b. 16 c. 4 d. 2 83. How many bones make up the skeleton of the arm? a. 4 b. 16 c. 3 d. 5 84. How many bones make up the hand? a. 12 b. 27 c. 87 85. How many bones make up the wrist? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12
d. 72
d. 14
86. How many bones are there in the fingers and thumbs? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 87. How many hip bones does the pelvis have? a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 88. The pelvis keeps the body a. fat b. down ? c. upright
d. 0
d. strong
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Science
The Human Body (continued…)
89. What part of your body bears your body’s weight? a. head b. back c. arms 90. How many bones does the foot have? a. 15 b. 20 d. feet
Scantron #601
c. 26
d. 62
91. How many skeletal muscles does the body have? a. 46 b. 640 c. 460 92. Skeletal muscle makes up about a. 40 b. 16
d. 440
percent of the body’s weight. c. 50 d. 25
93. How many facial muscles do the head and neck contain? a. 20 b. 25 c. 15 94. The larger muscles close the lower jaw during speaking and a. crying b. eating c. speaking
d. 30 . d. talking
95. What is the communication network called that controls and coordinates most body activities? a. Skull b. Foot c. Pelvis d. Nervous System 96. What is another name for nerve cells? a. nerve cells b. feet
c. neurons
d. protons
97. What is the electric signal that is transmitted throughout the body called? a. protons b. neurons c. nerve cells d. nerve impulses 98. What is the control center of the nervous system? a. brain b. feet c. arms 99. The cerebellum makes up a. 11 b. 10 100. Joints in the skeleton are where a. 4 b. 2 percent of the brain. c. 15
d. back
d. 20
or more bones meet. c. 6 d. 8
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Congratulations! This concludes your Course Workbook. Please return it to
Marque Learning Center along with your essays and completed scantrons. After it has been graded your High School Diploma should arrive within 1 week. If a balance is due please bring your final payment. ***Please let us know how your experience has been with us. We would love to hear your feedback on your experience with us and our customer service. Feel free to contact us through email: [email protected]
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Est. 2003
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